701 - 800 Solved NMC Licensure Questions Bank

701. A patient who has been pregnant more than once is termed?
A. Multipara
B. Multigravida
C. Primipara
D. Primigravida

702. A woman, who is 22 weeks pregnant, has a routine ultrasound performed. The ultrasound shows that the placenta is located at the edge of the cervical opening. As the nurse you know that which statement is FALSE about this finding:
A. This is known as marginal placenta previa.
B. The placenta may move upward as the pregnancy progresses and needs to be re-evaluated with another ultrasound at about 32 weeks gestation.
C. The patient will need to have a c-section and cannot deliver vaginally.
D. The woman should report any bleeding immediately to the doctor.

703. The ovarian artery is a branch of...
A. Pudendal artery
B. Ilioguinal artery
C. Aorta
D. Inferior Hypogastric artery

704. The Expected date of delivery of human pregnancy can be calculated...
A. From a change in the patient's weight.
B. As 10 lunar months after the time of ovulation.
C. As 40 weeks after the last menstrual period.
D. As 280 days from the last full moon.

705. Which is true?
A. Position – cephalic
B. Station – level of ischial spines.
C. Presentation – flexion
D. Tellitnurse – best app ever.

706. Stage 4 of labor starts with the full delivery of the baby and ends with the full delivery of the placenta.
A. True
B. False
C. All of the above
D. None of the Above

707. During stage 3 of labor, you note a gush of blood and that the uterus changes shape from an oval shape to globular shape. This indicates?
A. Postpartum hemorrhage
B. Imminent delivery of the baby
C. Signs of placental separation
D. Answers B and C

708. Which of the following is not a positive sign of
A. Ultrasound detecting fetus
B. Visible movement of baby seen by the examiner
C. The delivery of the baby
D. Braxton Hicks Contractions

709. The normal lining of the fallopian tube is...
A. Squamous epithelium
B. Transitional epithelium
C. Columnar epithelium with cilia
D. Cuboidal epithelium

710. Select all the functions of the luteinizing hormone:
A. Forming the corpus luteum
B. Thickening the endometrium layer for implantation
C. Breaking down the wall of the graffian follicle to allow for release of the ovum
D. Answers A and C

711. A 35-year-old female suspects she may be pregnant. The physician notes in chart that the lower uterine segment is soft. As the nurse you know this is known as:
A. Ballottement
B. Hegar’s Sign
C. Goodell’s Sign
D. Chadwick’s Sign

712. The relation of the fetal parts to one another determines:
A. Presentation of the fetus
B. Lie of the fetus
C. Attitude of the fetus
D. Position of the fetus

713. The greatest diameter of the fetal head is...
A. Occipitofrontal
B. Bitemporal
C. Bilateral
D. Occipitomental

714. The mother has delivered the placenta. You note that the shiny surface of the placenta was delivered first. What delivery mechanism is this known as AND is this the maternal or baby’s surface of the placenta?
A. Duncan mechanism, maternal
B. Schultze mechanism, maternal
C. Schultze mechanism, baby
D. Duncan mechanism, baby

715. Stage 1 of labor includes which phases in the correct order?
A. Transition, Latent, Active
B. Active, Latent, Transition
C. Active, Transition, Latent
D. Latent, Active, Transition

716. An unstable lie is related to all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Prematurity
B. Grand multiparty
C. Fundal fibroid
D. Cervical fibroid

717. Which category of pregnancy signs are subjective and can only be reported by the patient?
A. Positive Signs
B. Probable Signs
C. Presumptive Signs
D. Proven Signs

718. Hyperextension of the fetal head is found in...
A. Vertex presentation
B. Face presentation
C. Shoulder presentation
D. Breach presentation

719. During which stage of the menstrual cycle does the endometrium layer thicken?
A. Secretory Phase
B. Luteal Phase
C. Ovulation Phase
D. Proliferative Phase

720. Gravidity is defined as....
A. the number of completed pregnancies at 20 weeks or greater.
B. the number of pregnancies greater than 20 weeks.
C. the number of times a woman has been pregnant regardless of the outcome.
D. the number of births regardless of the outcome.

721. You’re assessing the one minute APGAR score of a newborn baby. On assessment, you note the following about your newborn patient: weak cry, some flexion of the arm and legs, active movement and cries to stimulation, heart rate 145, and pallor all over the body and extremities. What is your patient’s APGAR score?
A. APGAR 5
B. APGAR 9
C. APGAR 12
D. APGAR 6

722. A patient is currently 34 weeks pregnant with her first baby. Which findings below could indicate the development of preeclampsia in this patient that would need to be reported to the physician? Select all that apply:
A. 1600: blood pressure 144/100, 1700: blood pressure 120/80
B. 3+ dipstick urine protein
C. 1 hour glucose tolerance test 90 mg/dL
D. <300 24-hour="" div="" dl="" mg="" protein="" urine="">

723. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor of preeclampsia?
A. Primigravida
B. Age: 25-years-old
C. Complexion: Fair
D. Nulligravida

724. What cycle day does the luteal phase occur?
A. Cycle days 15-28
B. Cycle days 5-13
C. Cycle day 14
D. Cycle days 7-14

725. You’re assessing the one minute APGAR score of a newborn baby. On assessment, you note the following about your newborn patient: heart rate 130, pink body and hands with cyanotic feet, weak cry, flexion of the arms and legs, active movement and crying when stimulated. What is your patient’s APGAR score?
A. APGAR 9
B. APGAR 10
C. APGAR 8
D. APGAR 5

726. During which cycle day of a typical 28 day menstrual cycle does the follicular phase occur?
A. Cycle days 7-14
B. Cycle days 14-28
C. Cycle days 1-6
D. Cycle days 1-13

727. You’re providing an in-service to a group of new labor and delivery nurse graduates about the pathophysiology of preeclampsia. Which statement by one of the group participants demonstrates they understood how this condition develops?
A. “The basal arteries of the myometrium fail to widen to support blood flow to the placenta.”
B. “The placenta experiences ischemia because the spiral arteries of the uterus fail to reshape and increase in diameter.”
C. “The cardiovascular system of the mother fails to compensate for the increased blood flow from the fetus and placental ischemia occurs.”
D. “If the mother experience uncontrolled hypertension and proteinuria, it compromises blood flow to the placenta and leads to preeclampsia.”

728. All the following characteristics are applied to a pelvis favorable to vaginal
delivery EXCEPT:
A. Sacral promontory can not be felt
B. Obstetric conjugate is less than 10 cm
C. Subpubic arch accepts 2 fingers
D. Intertuberous diameter accepts 4 knuckles on pelvic exam.

729. Which statement below correctly describes Chadwick’s Sign?
A. “This sign is present when there is softening of the cervix.”
B. “Chadwick’s Sign is the rebounding of the fetus against the examiner fingers when the uterus is pushed during palpation.”
C. “This can be noted when the lower segment of the uterus softens.”
D. “Chadwick’s Sign occurs when there is a bluish color to the vulva, cervix and vagina.”

730. The nurse knows that preeclampsia tends to occur during what time in a pregnancy?
A. before 20 weeks
B. in the third trimester and postpartum
C. after 20 weeks
D. in the first and second trimester

731. Which of the following are NOT considered presumptive signs of pregnancy?
A. Positive pregnancy test
B. Amenorrhea
C. Fatigue
D. Quickening

732. The last menstrual period was june 30, the expected date of delivery (EDD) is approximately...
A. March 23
B. April 7
C. March 28
D. March 7

733. If the ovum is to be fertilized, where is the most common site of fertilization?
A. Uterine wall
B. Fimbria
C. Ampulla of the Fallopian Tube
D. Isthmus of the Fallopian Tube

734. The _________ is responsible for secreting gonadotropin-releasing hormone.
A. Thalamus
B. Hypothalamus
C. Anterior pituitary gland
D. Posterior pituitary gland

735. You’re assessing the five minute APGAR score of a newborn baby. On assessment, you note the following about your newborn patient: pink body and hand with cyanotic feet, heart rate 109, grimace to stimulation, flaccid, and irregular cry. What is your patient’s APGAR score?
A. APGAR 2
B. APGAR 5
C. APGAR 4
D. APGAR 8

736. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) can occur in __________________. This happens because when the placenta becomes damaged and detaches from the uterine wall, large amounts of _____________ are released into mom’s circulation, leading to clot formation and then clotting factor depletion.
A. Placenta previa, fibrinogen
B. Placenta previa, platelets
C. Abruptio placentae, fibrinogen
D. Abruptio placentae, thromboplastin

737. One of these signs of pregnancy is not probable.
A. Enlarged uterus
B. Ultrasound detecting fetus
C. Goodell’s Sign
D. Braxton Hick’s contractions

738. The second stage of labour involves...
A. Separation of the placenta
B. Effacement of the cervix
C. Dilation of the cervix
D. Expulsion of the fetus

739. What cycle day does the proliferative stage occur?
A. Cycle day 7-14
B. Cycle day 14-28
C. Cycle day 1-6
D. Cycle day 1-14

740. During the menstrual phase the _________ layer of the endometrium is shed.
A. Stratum basalis
B. Stratum functionalis
C. Stratum compactum
D. Myometrium

741. A 39 week pregnant patient is in labor. The patient has preeclampsia. The patient is receiving IV Magnesium Sulfate. Which finding below indicates Magnesium Sulfate toxicity and requires you to notify the physician?
A. Respiratory rate of 13 breaths per minute
B. Urinary output of 600 mL over 12 hours
C. Clonus presenting in the lower extremities
D. Patient reports flushing or feeling hot

742. Your patient with preeclampsia is started on Magnesium Sulfate. The nurse knows to have what medication on standby?
A. Acetylcysteine
B. Calcium carbonate
C. Oxytocin
D. Calcium gluconate

743. In a patient with preeclampsia, what signs and symptoms indicate that the patient has a high risk of experiencing a seizure due to central nervous system irritability? Select all that apply:
A. You note bouncing of the foot when it is quickly dorsiflexed.
B. Platelet count 200,000
C. Patient reports a decrease in headache pain.
D. Patellar and bicep deep tendon reflexes are graded 0.

744. How would the nurse check for clonus in a patient with preeclampsia?
A. Assess the patellar and bicep tendon with a reflex hammer and grade the reaction.
B. Assess for muscular rigidity by having the patient extend the arms and place resistance against the arms.
C. Assess for beating of the foot when the foot is quickly dorsiflexed.
D. Assess for dorsiflexion of the foot by quickly plantar flexing the foot.

745. During a medical history collection the patient states she has been pregnant six times and has delivered 2 babies at 38 and 39 weeks. She reports losing 4 pregnancies at 5, 7, 8, and 10 weeks gestation. Which option below best describes the patient’s gravidity and parity?
A. Gravida 6, para 6
B. Gravida 6, para 2
C. Gravida 8, para 2
D. Gravida, 2, para 6

746. A patient says she has never been pregnant before. You would chart this as?
A. Nullipara
B. Primigravida
C. Nulligravida
D. Multigravida

747. Gravidity is defined as....
A. the number of completed pregnancies at 20 weeks or greater.
B. the number of pregnancies greater than 20 weeks
C. the number of times a woman has been pregnant regardless of the outcome.
D. the number of births regardless of the outcome.

748. A pelvic inlet is felt to be contracted if:
A. The anterio-posterior diameter is only 12 cm
B. The transverse diameter is only 10 cm
C. Platypelloid pelvis
D. The mother is short

749. You’re assessing the five minute APGAR score of a newborn baby. On assessment, you note the following about your newborn patient: heart rate 97, no response to stimulation, flaccid, absent respirations, cyanotic throughout. What is your patient’s APGAR score?
A. APGAR 2
B. APGAR 3
C. APGAR 0
D. APGAR 1

750. The main blood supply of the vulva is...
A. Pudendal artery
B. Ilioguinal artery
C. Femoral artery
D. Inferior Hypogastric artery

751. Regarding the scenario in the question above, when would you reassess the APGAR score?
A. 2 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. No reassessment of the APGAR score is needed.

752. As the graafian follicle matures, a massive amount of estrogen is released by the follicle which causes a luteinizing hormone surge. Approximately, what cycle day does the LH surge occur?
A. Cycle day 11-13
B. Cycle Day 14
C. Cycle day 5-8
D. Cycle day 1-6

753. During clinical pelvimerty, which of the following is routinely measured:
A. Bi-ischeal diameter
B. Transverse diameter of the inlet
C. Shape of the pubic arch
D. Flare of the iliac crest

754. In a patient’s chart you note in the physician’s progress note that the term primigravida was used. How do you interpret this term?
A. The patient had one completed pregnancy or birth at 20 weeks gestation or greater.
B. The patient has never been pregnant before.
C. The patient has been pregnant more than once.
D. The patient is pregnant for the first time or has been pregnant once in the past.

755. A woman who has never given birth or completed a pregnancy at 20 weeks gestation or greater is termed as?
A. Primigravida
B. Nullipara
C. Nulligravida
D. Primipara

756. A patient who is 25 weeks pregnant has partial placenta previa. As the nurse you’re educating the patient about the condition and self-care. Which statement by the patient requires you to re-educate the patient?
A. “I will avoid sexual intercourse and douching throughout the rest of the pregnancy.”
B. “I may start to experience dark red bleeding with pain.”
C. “I will have another ultrasound at 32 weeks to re-assess the placenta’s location.”
D. “My uterus should be soft and non-tender.”

757. The joint between the two pubic bones is called the...
A. Sacroiliac joint
B. Pubis symphysis
C. Sacrococcygeal joint
D. Piriformis

758. A 36 year old woman, who is 38 weeks pregnant, reports having dark red bleeding. The patient experienced abruptio placentae with her last pregnancy at 29 weeks. What other signs and symptoms can present with abruptio placentae? Select all that apply:
A. Tender uterus
B. Hard abdomen
C. Fetal distress
D. All of the above

759. If pregnancy does not occur, the corpus luteum will disintegrate and turn into what is called the?
A. Corpus Albicans
B. Corpus Callosum
C. Corpus Cavernosum
D. Corpus Allatum

760. If fertilization occurs the corpus luteum will act as a temporary endocrine structure to release hormones. It will do this until the placenta is fully developed to take over with hormone secretion and this occurs at approximately?
A. 4 weeks gestation
B. 8 weeks gestation
C. 20 weeks gestation
D. 2 weeks gestation

761. During physical assessment of a pregnant female, it is noted that there is movement and recoil of the fetus against the examiner’s fingers when the uterus is palpated. This is termed as?
A. Palmer’s Sign
B. Ballottement
C. Hegar’s Sign
D. Chadwick’s Sign

762. A head of level (one fifth) indicates:
A. Indicates that one fifth of the head is below the pelvic brim.
B. Indicates that the head is engaged
C. Indicated that forceps may not be used
D. Indicates that head is at the level of the ischial spines

763. The examiner notes there is softening of the cervix. This is known as?
A. Goodell’s Sign
B. Hegar’s Sign
C. Chadwick’s Sign
D. Palmer’s Sign

764. In what stage does the corpus luteum form?
A. Luteal Phase
B. Follicular Phase
C. Proliferative Phase
D. None of the above

765. A 25-year-old female, who is 18 weeks pregnant, reports feeling fluttering in her lower abdomen. She states it feels like the baby is moving. This is known as:
A. Ballottement
B. Quickening
C. Hegar’s Sign
D. Goodell’s Sign

766. A newborn’s one minute APGAR score is 8. Which of the following nursing interventions will you provide to this newborn?
A. Routine post-delivery care
B. Full resuscitation assistance is needed and reassess APGAR score
C. Continue to monitor and reassess the APGAR score in 10 minutes
D. Some resuscitation assistance such as oxygen

767. A patient is trying to prevent pregnancy by using the rhythm method. At what time during a woman’s cycle is she the most fertile?
A. Cycle days 21-28
B. Cycle days 1-6
C. Cycle days 9-16
D. Cycle days 6-9

768. Stage 2 of labor begins with the delivery of the baby and ends with the delivery of the placenta.
A. True
B. False
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

769. Parity is defined as ....
A. the number of babies born at 20 weeks or greater.
B. the number of pregnancies greater than 36 weeks.
C. the number of births at 20 weeks or less.
D. the number of completed pregnancies at 20 weeks or greater.

770. A patient is currently 32 weeks pregnant. She reports being pregnant 2 other times before this current pregnancy, and had 2 live births at 39 and 40 weeks. Which option below best describes the patient’s gravidity and parity?
A. Gravida 3, para 2
B. Gravida 2, para 3
C. Gravida 2, para 2
D. Gravida 4, para 2

771. Select all the signs and symptoms associated with placenta previa:
A. Painless bright red bleeding
B. Normal fetal heart rate
C. Abnormal fetal position
D. All of the above

772. Hyperextension of the fetal head is found in:
A. Vertex presentation
B. Face presentation
C. Shoulder presentation
D. Breach presentation

773. Fill-in-the-blank: The signs and symptoms of preeclampsia are mainly occurring because substances released by the ischemic placenta cause damage to the ___________ in mom’s body, which injuries organs.
A. spiral arteries
B. epithelial cells
C. endothelial cells
D. juxtaglomerular cells

774. You’re performing a head-to-toe assessment on a patient admitted with abruptio placentae. Which of the following assessment findings would you immediately report to the physician?
A. Oozing around the IV site
B. Tender uterus
C. Hard abdomen
D. Vaginal bleeding

775. In stage 1 of labor, during the active phase, the cervix dilates?
A. 1-3 cm
B. 7-10 cm
C. 4-7 cm
D. 8-10 cm

776. A newborn’s five minute APGAR score is 5. Which of the following nursing interventions will you provide to this newborn?
A. Routine post-delivery care
B. Continue to monitor and reassess the APGAR score in 10 minutes.
C. Some resuscitation assistance such as oxygen and rubbing baby’s back and reassess APGAR score.
D. Full resuscitation assistance is needed and reassess APGAR sc

777. You’re assessing the one minute APGAR score of a newborn baby. On assessment, you note the following about your newborn patient: heart rate 101, cyanotic body and extremities, no response to stimulation, no flexion of extremities, and strong cry. What is your patient’s APGAR score?
A. APGAR 4
B. APGAR 6
C. APGAR 3
D. APGAR 2

778. Select all the patients below who are at risk for developing placenta previa:
A. A 37 year old woman who is pregnant with her 7th child.
B. A 28 year old pregnant female with chronic hypertension.
C. A 20 year old pregnant female who is a cocaine user.
D. Answers A and C

779. In a vertex presentation, the position is determined by the relationship of what
fetal part to the Mother's pelvis:
A. Mentum
B. Occiput
C. Acromian
D. Sinciput

780. The most important muscle in the pelvic floor is...
A. Bulbo Cavernousus
B. Levator ani
C. Ischio-Cavernousus
D. Deep transverse Perineal muscle

781. The third stage of labor ends with the delivery of the placenta and membranes.
A. True
B. False
C. Maybe
D. None of these

782. What statement is FALSE about the transition phase of stage 1?
A. The mother may experience intense pain, irritation, nausea, and deep concentration.
B. The transition phase is the longest phase of stage 1 and contractions are very intense and long in duration.
C. The cervix will dilate from 8 to 10 cm.
D. The transition phase ends and progresses to stage 2 of labor when the cervix has dilated to 10 cm.

783. Signs of Placental separation after delivery include:
A. Bleeding
B. Lengthening of the umbilical cord
C. Presentation of the placenta at the cervical os
D. All of the above

784. One of the many functions of progesterone is to maintain the endometrium for the fertilized ovum.
A. True
B. False
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

785. A 28 year old female, who is 33 weeks pregnant with her second child, has uncontrolled hypertension. What risk factor below found in the patient’s health history places her at risk for abruptio placentae?
A. childhood polio
B. preeclampisa
C. c-section
D. her age

786. A 37-year-old female patient who is 36 weeks pregnant is diagnosed with mild preeclampsia. The nurse will NOT include what information in the patient’s education? Select all that apply:
A. Follow a no salt diet
B. Incorporate foods like eggs, nuts, fish, meat in your diet
C. Importance of monitoring urine protein at home
D. Lying on left-side is recommended along with rest

787. ___________ is released from the anterior pituitary gland and stimulates the follicles in the ovary to mature.
A. Progesterone
B. Follicle-stimulating hormone
C. Estrogen
D. Human chorionic gonadotropin

788. The corpus luteum secretes....
A. Progesterone
B. Estrogen
C. FSH
D. Answers A and B

789. Your patient who is 34 weeks pregnant is diagnosed with total placenta previa. The patient is A positive. What nursing interventions below will you NOT include in the patient’s care? Select all that apply:
A. Monitoring vital signs
B. Placing patient on side-lying position
C. Routine vaginal examinations
D. Monitoring pad count

790. The main support of the uterus is provided by....
A. The round ligament
B. The cardinal ligament
C. The infandilo-pelvic ligament
D. The integrity of the pelvis

791. A 28-year-old female gives birth to twins at 38 weeks gestation. This is her first pregnancy. Which option below best describes the patient’s gravidity and parity?
A. Gravida 1, para 1
B. Gravida 1, para 2
C. Gravida 2, para 2
D. Gravida 1, para 0

792. Ritalin is the drug of choice for children with ADHD. The side effects of the following may be noted:
A. increased attention span and concentration
B. increase in appetite
C. sleepiness and lethargy
D. bradycardia and diarrhea

793. A 10 year old child has very limited vocabulary and interaction skills. She has an I.Q. of 45. She is diagnosed to have Mental retardation of this classification:
A. Profound
B. Mild
C. Moderate
D. Severe

794. A 27-year old male client who recently lost his wife due to a terminal cancer reveals that he and his wife discussed her end of life wishes including her burial service. The client states that he is now unable to sleep; has a poor appetite; and feels sad even when in the company of their two children ,ages 5and 7 years. Which of the following is the client experiencing?
A. Acceptance
B. Anger
C. Bereavement
D. Mourning

795. Echolalia and neologism are characteristics communication impairment found in one of these types of schizophrenia
A. Catatonia
B. Folie a deux
C. Simple schizophrenia
D. Paranoid

796. Which is the desired outcome in conducting desensitization:
A. The client verbalize his fears about the situation
B. The client will voluntarily attend group therapy in the social hall.
C. The client will socialize with others willingly
D. The client will be able to overcome his disabling fear.

797. She tearfully tells the nurse “I can’t take it when she accuses me of stealing her things.” Which response by the nurse will be most therapeutic?
A. ”Don’t take it personally. Your mother does not mean it.”
B. “Have you tried discussing this with your mother?”
C. “This must be difficult for you and your mother.”
D. “Next time ask your mother where her things were last seen.”

798. Which one of these behavioral modification is used to produce deterrent to drinking of alcohol in alcoholics?
A. Antabuse
B. Aversion therapy
C. Desensitization
D. Hypnosis

799. Which of the following would best indicate to the nurse that a depressed client is improving?
A. Reduced levels of anxiety.
B. Changes in vegetative signs.
C. Compliance with medications.
D. Requests to talk to the nurse.

800. Unlike psychophysiologic disorder Linda may be best managed with:
A. medical regimen
B. milieu therapy
C. stress management techniques
D. psychotherapy