601 - 700 Solved NMC Licensure Questions Bank

601. Without any pathological lesions a patient’s respiratory centre is stimulated by
A. Calcium
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Lactic acid
D. Oxygen

602. A client with an ileostomy is at risk of developing ....
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Respirations
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis

603. The priority nursing diagnosis of the acute phase of myocardial infarction is:
A. alteration in comfort (pain)
B. anxiety
C. ineffective coping
D. impaired tissue integrity

604. A client diagnosed of thrombophlebitis 24 hours ago suddenly complains of chest pain, shortness of breath and visible anxiousness. The nurse must check the client for other signs and symptoms of ....
A. myocardial infarction
B. pneumonia
C. pulmonary embolism
D. pulmonary oedema

605. In pericarditis, which of the following clinical features differentiates it from other cardiopulmonary disease?
A. chest pain that worsens on inspiration
B. pericardial friction rub
C. anterior chest pain
D. weakness and irritability

606. Which of the following is an initial sign of hyperkalaemia?
A. pancytopenia anaemia
B. haemorrhagic anaemia
C. Addison’s pernicious anemia
D. Aplastic anaemia

607. A hypertensive patient was placed on furosemide a loop diuretic. The mechanism of action of this medication is to....
A. Block reabsorption of sodium and water in the kidneys
B. Block the effect of angiotensin II
C. Impair synthesis of norepinephrine
D. Inhibit calcium iron influx

608. Madam Ageni Boya, a 41 year old who has vomited severally is likely to be diagnosed of.
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Respiratory acidosis

609. A boy, 14 is admitted to the hospital with acute myelogenous leukemia and presented bruises and petechiae over his legs. Which of the following nursing measure would best prevent additional bruises?
A. brushing the teeth only once per day
B. trimming his nails short
C. handling him well with the palms of the hand
D. gripping him in an arm chair

610. Which of the following is an initial sign of hyperkalaemia?
A. pancytopenia anaemia
B. haemorrhagicanaemia
C. Addison’s pernicious anemia
D. Aplastic anaemia

611. Prophylaxis for hepatitis B includes
A. Avoiding expired tin food
B. Observing food hygiene
C. Preventing constipation
D. Screening of blood donors

612. An agent of a disease is referred to:
A. the affected person
B. the causative organism
C. the method of spread of the disease
D. the environmental condition

613. The Apical and Radial pulse of a cardiac patient was checked. What will be the difference between the Apical and Radial pulse?
A. Bradycardia
B. Pulse deficit
C. Rhythm deficit
D. Tachycadia

614. Squint occurs when ....
A. there is an increased intraoccular pressure
B. there is a failure of the visual axes to meet at the point being observed
C. there is a displaced lens
D. the lenses are opaque

615. To identify a cortical motor abnormality during nervous system assessment, the nurse instruct patient to do which of the following?
A. Flex the wrist
B. Make a fist
C. Swinging the arm
D. Throw a ball

616. A client is diagnosed with chronic ulcerative colitis and is anaemiC. What caused the anaemia?
A. Decreased intake of dietary iron
B. Blood loss
C. Intestinal malabsorption
D. Lack of appetite.

617. Which of the following occurs in cardiogenic shock?
A. flushed, dry skin with bounding pedal pulses
B. warm, moist skin with irregular pedal pulses
C. cool, dry skin with alternating weak and strong pedal pulses
D. cool, clammy skin with weak or thready pedal pulses

618. A Hepatitis B patient on your ward reported of passing light colored stools this could be as a result of the liver....
A. Becoming enlarged and tender
B. Converting glucose to glycogen
C. Not being able to produce bile
D. Secreting a lot of bile salt

619. In hemorrhagic anemia, injection....is given to client to allay anxiety.
A. pethidine
B. Coumadin
C. heparin
D. morphine

620. Which of the following drugs will be prescribed for a patient with too little intrinsic factor?
A. Vitamin B12 injections
B. Vitamin B3 injections
C. Vitamin B6 injections
D. Antacid use

621. A nurse planning care for a client with hepatitis, plans to meet the client’s safety needs by:
A. monitoring prothrombin and partial thromboplastin values
B. bathing with tepid water
C. assisting with meals
D. weighing and recording a weight daily

622. After feeding a patient through a nasogastric tube, the nurse places the patient in which position?
A. Supine
B. Fowler’s
C. Sim’s
D. Tredelenburg

623. Mamle Dzata diagnosised of malaria with a temperature of 40˚c. The temperature reduced to 39.6˚c after tepid sponging. Which of the following organs controls the body temperature?
A. Adrenal gland
B. Hypothalamus
C. Pituitary
D. Thyroid gland

624. An agent of a disease is referred to:
A. the affected person
B. the causative organism
C. the method of spread of the disease
D. the environmental condition

625. For a patient with pulmonary edema, the nurse must reduce cardiac overload by:
A. Elevating the legs when in bed.
B. Putting the patient in supine position
C. Serving a seasoned beef to him
D. Using bedside commode for stools

626. Alhaji Bashiru has been diagnosed of peptic ulcer and is on admission at your ward. Which of the following clinical manifestations confirms that he has a duodenal ulcer .ˀ pain occursː
A. 2 to 3 hours after meals
B. 30 minutes to 1 hour after meals
C. 2 to 3 hours before meals
D. 30 minutes to 1 hour before meals

627. When teaching about antacid therapy the nurse should include the fact that antacid tablets
A. Are as effective as the liquid from
B. Interfere with the absorption of other drugs
C. Must be taken one hour before meals
D. Should be taken only at 4-hourly intervals

628. A nurse understands that presbycusis is accurately described as....
A. A sensori-neural loss that occurs with aging
B. a conductive hearing loss that occurs with aging
C. Tinnitus that occurs with aging
D. Nystagmus that occurs with aging

629. Mr. Abam , age 45 reported to your unit with complains of muscular weakness, constipation, anorexia, bradycardia and heart block. Which of the following conditions is the patient suffering from?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypocalcaemia
D. Hypokalemia

630. To minimize the systemic effects that eye drops can produce, the nurse plans to instruct the client to:
A. at before instilling the drops
B. wallow several times after instilling the drops
C. Blink vigorously to encourage tearing after instilling drops
D. occlude the nasolacriminal duct with the finger for several minutes after instilling the drops

631. Which of the following does not exacerbate the condition of a patient suffering from heart failure?
A. recent upper respiratory infection
B. nutritional anaemia
C. peptic ulcer disease
D. atrial fibrillation

632. Which of the following often causes haemorrhagic anaemia?
A. physical injury to either external or internal structures with severe blood loss
B. decreased absorption of nutrients in the gastro-interstinal tract
C. endocrine changes in the body
D. lack of micro-nutrients in the diet

633. A serious complication of malaria is
A. Anaemia and haemorrhge
B. Black water fever
C. Congested lung
D. Impaired peristalsis

634. A patient who is exposed to hepatitis A is given gamma globulin to provide passive immunity which
A. Accelerates antigen-antibody union at the hepatic site
B. Increases the production of short – lived antibodies
C. Provides antibodies that neutralize the antigen
D. Stimulates the lymphatic system to produce antibodies

635. An open-angle glaucoma occurs when....
A. the pressure increases within the eye from excess fluid or blocking the drainage
B. the lens of the eye becomes opaque
C. the blood vessels in the back of the eye ruptures
D. there is a reduction in the amount of aqueous humour produced

636. In nursing, which of the following treatments will be of priority in the treatment of otitis media?
A. bed rest
B. mastoidectomy
C. dyphenhydramine
D. myringotomy

637. To facilitate communication with an 80 year old client diagnosed of presbycusis, the nurse should
A. lower the voice pitch and face the client when speaking
B. use sign language
C. speak loudly
D. put the mouth closely to one ear when speaking

638. A negatively charged ion in the body is called:
A. hydrolysis
B. buffer
C. anion
D. cation

639. Pernicious anaemia is associated with
A. Decreased absorption of vitamin B12
B. Decreased consumption of iron
C. Excessive consumption of iron
D. Excessive loss of gastric juices

640. When educating the family of a patient with AIDS who has been discharged the nurse should tell the family
A. “let the patient eat from paper plates and discard them”
B. “soak the plates in hot water overnight before washing”
C. “you need to boil the plates for 30 minutes after use”
D. “wash the plates in hot soapy water as you usually do”

641. Awurama dadzi developed hypoalbuminaemia, which of the following could be the causes of awurama’s condition.

I. damaged gastrointestinal tract

II. infection

III. stress
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I, II and III

642. In nursing Mr. Anum, a 40 year old vegetarian with malnutrition, what will be the nurse’s great concern?
A. Intake of foods rich in folate
B. Intake of foods rich in iron
C. Intake of vitamin A rich food
D. Intake of vitamin B rich foods

643. In the management of a patient suffering from nephrotic syndrome, the nurse must know that....
A. the blood has not been infected
B. the patient is susceptible to infection
C. the patient’s voice will become hoarse
D. the patient is helped with corticosteroid if it is associated with diabetes mellitus

644. Madam Alepa Doda, 26years was admitted into the medical ward and treated for pneumonia. Before she was discharged, she was again diagnosed as having malaria. Acquiring infections or diseases other than the one patient was admitted with is described as ....
A. chronic infection
B. contact infection
C. nosocomial infection
D. Patient to patient infection

645. A positively charged ion in the body is called:
A. cation
B. anion
C. buffer
D. hydrolysis

646. Afeto kwamevi Ametor has been on your ward for the past seven days with the diagnosis of coronary artery disease [CAD]. What are some of the non₋modifiable risk factors of the above conditionsˀ

I. Family history of CAD

II. Hypertension

III. Increasing Age

IV. Obesity
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and IV
D. III and IV

647. The student nurse checks the oxygen saturation of a 60 year old man with pneumonia who has removed the oxygen catheter and the result is 70 percent. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Inform the charge nurse that oxygen saturation Is normal
B. Nebulize patient
C. Put the oxygen catheter back on the patient
D. Takes no action

648. Right ventricular failure (Right-sided-heart failure) is treated by the combination of
A. morphine and frusemide
B. rest, digitalis and diuretics
C. morphine, antibiotics and ant diuretics
D. morphine alone.

649. Dermatitis, diarrhea, and dermatitis are characteristic of....
A. pellagra
B. rickets
C. osteomyelitis
D. mumps

650. A common complication of myocardial infarction is
A. Anaphylactic shock
B. Cardiac arrhythmia
C. Cardiac enlargement
D. Hypokalaemia

651. Which of the following foods can worsen the pain of a client suffersing from Raynaud’s disease?
A. ingestion of coffee or chocolate
B. ingestion of an offal
C. ingestion of cereals and pulses
D. ingestion of fruits and vegetables

652. During a code response in the intensive care unit, a nursing student was inadvertently pricked with a needle used on a homeless patient who had just arrived at the unit. What kind of treatment will the student receive?
A. Post exposure prophylaxis after laboratory test
B. Immediate pre exposure prophylaxis
C. Post exposure prophylaxis
D. Pre exposure prophylaxis

653. As a preceptor on the ward, how will you explain vertigo to a second year RGN student?
A. A feeling of dizziness and discomfort
B. A feeling of restlessness and listlessness
C. An abnormal sensation of imbalance movement
D. Having a feeling of light headedness and dizziness

654. In acute urethritis, the commonest symptom is....
A. pelvic pain
B. urethral discharge
C. increased temperature
D. dysuria

655. A client is experiencing respiratory distress but unchanged blood pressure. The immediate nursing action is:
A. suction of the patient vigorously
B. put the patient in high-Fowler’s position
C. give all the prescribed medications
D. call the respiratory therapy department for an assistance

656. A client suffering from coronary artery disease should be encouraged to take:
A. rice and grilled chicken
B. fruits, vegetables and baked fish
C. grilled pork, fatty mutton with buttered rice
D. eggs, buttered rice with fried chicken

657. It is important for the nurse to prevent infection in sickle cell patient because
A. infection kills instantly
B. infection can cause sickling
C. infection causes clubbing of the fingers
D. infection causes further blood loss

658. Mr kwabena Ankama, a 65 year old driver has been admitted to the male medical ward with dysrhythmia. The nursing diagnosis for the above patient may include the followingː

I. Anxiety related to fear of the unknown

II. Decrease cardiac output

III. Deficient knowledge about dysrhythmia and it treatment

IV. Family history of the disease
A. I and II
B. I and IV
C. I, II and III
D. II, III and IV

659. A nurse who is caring for a client that has a hearing impaired will adopt which of the following approaches?
A. speak frequently
B. speak loudly
C. speak directly into the unaffected ear
D. speak in a normal tone

660. The nurse ’s teaching of Madam Dede Armah diagnosed of hyperparathyroidism will includeː
A. Avoidance of excessive intake of calcium
B. Avoidance of excessive intake of iron rich foods
C. Encouraging intake of high protein diet
D. Encouraging intake of high sodium diet

661. In mumps, there is self-limited swelling of the....
A. adrenalins
B. pyloric sphincter
C. parotid gland
D. thymus gland

662. Mr. Marfof 76 years been discharged after he was managed for angina pectoris. Which of the following should the nurse include in his teaching?
A. Avoid alcohol
B. Eat diet high in fiber
C. Eat diet high in saturated diet
D. Reduced smoking

663. Potassium excess can result in:
A. tongue fissure
B. muscle cramps
C. sunken eyes
D. increased sweating

664. Alhaji Koo Baba, a 52 year old mechanic reported to the hospital with the complaints of headache, dizziness and palpitations. His body mass index was calculated to be 50kg/m3. The probable diagnosis will be....
A. Morbidly obese
B. Normal weight
C. Obese
D. Overweight

665. One of the commonest complications of chronic asthma is
A. Atelectasis
B. Emphysema
C. Pneumothorax
D. Pulmonary fibrosis

666. Mr. Moore has been diagnosed of thyroid disease due to inadequate intake of iodine. His condition could lead to....

I. increased production of thyroid hormone

II. increased production of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)

III. reduced production of thyroid hormone

IV.reduced production of thyroid stimulating hormone
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I, II, and III
D. I, II, III and IV

667. Which of the following occurs in cardiogenic shock?
A. flushed, dry skin with bounding pedal pulses
B. warm, moist skin with irregular pedal pulses
C. cool, dry skin with alternating weak and strong pedal pulses
D. cool, clammy skin with weak or thread pedal pulses

668. Cranial nerve I is also called....
A. Olfactory nerve
B. Oculomotor nerve
C. Trochlear nerve
D. Facial nerve

669. Pulmonary tuberculosis [TB] is on the increase. The main principles in preventing the transmission of this disease is ̸ are....

I. Early identification and treatment of people with active TB

II. Performing a physical examination on patient

III. Prevention of spread of infectious droplet

IV. Surveillance of TB transmission
A. I and IV
B. I, II and III
C. I, III and IV
D. IV only

670. Which of the following often causes hemorrhagic anemia?
A. physical injury to either external or internal structures with severe blood loss
B. decreased absorption of nutrients in the gastro-intestinal tract
C. endocrine changes in the body
D. lack of micro-nutrients in the diet

671. People should be taught to avoid food products in bulged cans because they might contain
A. Clostridia tetani
B. Clostridia botulinum
C. Escherichia coli
D. Salmonella

672. When assessing a patient with a suspected atelectasis the nurse would expect
A. A dry unproductive cough
B. A normal oral temperature
C. Diminished breath sounds
D. Slow deep respiration

673. What will be the most effective way to increase the probability that a patient will implement a self-care regime at home after been diagnosed and treated for Angina
A. Identify patient coping mechanism at home
B. Provide adequate education on heart healthy living
C. Provide patient with a 24₋hour diet plan
D. Refer patient to a public health nurse in his community

674. A nurse should advise a client with Maniere’s disease and experiencing severe vertigo to....
A. increase fluid intake to 3L a day
B. avoid sudden head movements
C. lie still in bed and watch television
D. decrease sodium intake

675. Which of the following is likely to cause pernicious anaemia?
A. Decreased dietary intake of iron
B. Hemi-gastrectomy
C. Excessive consumption of iron
D. Reduced level of thyroxine

676. Mr. Kwame Nyamekye has been on the ward with the diagnosis of Anaemia. His discharge teaching to maintain nutritional status at home includes;

I. Eat well balanced diet

II. Drink adequate fluids

III. Avoid processed foods

IV. Avoid foods high in fat
A. I and II
B. I,II and IV
C. I, II, III and IV
D. II, III and IV

677. In atherosclerosis, the deposition of fatty material occurs beneath....
A. the outer lining of the blood vessels
B. the superficial venues and arterioles
C. the middle lining of the blood vessels
D. the inner lining of the blood vessels

678. A client is experiencing respiratory distress but unchanged blood pressure. The immediate nursing action is:
A. suction of the patient vigorously
B. put the patient in high-Fowler’s position
C. give all the prescribed medications
D. call the respiratory therapy department for an assistance

679. The predominant cation in the intracellular compartment is:
A. chloride
B. calcium
C. magnesium
D. potassium

680. Asibi Bawa was diagnosed with syphilis. Which of the following organisms will be isolated after a culture and sensitivity test is done.
A. Candida albicans
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
C. Streptococcus syphilis
D. Treponema pallidum

681. In pericarditis, which of the following clinical features differentiates it from other cardiopulmonary disease?
A. chest pain that worsens on inspiration
B. pericardial friction rub
C. anterior chest pain
D. weakness and irritability

682. Which of the following data collected by the nurse is least associated with Peptic ulcer
A. History of tarry black stools
B. History of alcohol abuse
C. istory of gastric pain 2 to 4 hours after meals
D. History of the use of acetaminophen

683. The by products of all foods oxidized in the body are;
A. amino acids, oxygen and glycerol
B. fatty acids, glycerol and carbon dioxide
C. glucose, amino acids and water
D. carbon dioxide, energy and water

684. Clinical features of hypokalaemia include
A. Apathy, weakness, abdominal distention
B. Oedema, bounding pulse, confusion
C. Spasms, diarrhea, irregular pulse rate
D. Sunken eye balls, kussmau/ breathing thirst

685. In making dietary changes for a client experiencing nausea and vomiting, the nurse must ....
A. A void diary products and red meat
B. Plan large, nutritious meals
C. Add spices to food for added flavour
D. Serve foods while they are very warm

686. When caring for a patient who is HIV positive the nurse should explain to the patient how to prevent
A. AIDS
B. Kaposis sarcoma
C. Other infections
D. Social isolation

687. Madam Besiwaa aged 50, came to your unit hypovolemic shock. What will be the nurse’s first action to take during the compensatory stage of shock?
A. Administer prescribed IV fluids
B. Administer prescribed medication
C. Assist in identifying and treating the underlying causes
D. Monitor the patient’s hemodynamic status

688. A patient receiving propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal) should be told to expect
A. Acceleration of the heart rate after eating a heavy meal
B. Flushing sensations for a few minutes after taking the drugs
C. Dizziness with strenuous activity
D. Pounding of the heart for few minutes after taking the drug

689. Maniere’s disease is a disorder of the....
A. external ear
B. tympanic membrane
C. middle ear
D. inner ear

690. Vitamins are needed .... to sustain growth and health
A. periodically in smaller quantities
B. daily in smaller quantities
C. annually in greater quantities
D. periodically in greater quantities

691. The persistence of which of the following is usually incompatible with
spontaneous delivery at term:
A. Occiput left posterior
B. Mentum posterior
C. Mentum anterior
D. Occiput anterior

692. Which statement is TRUE about the ovulation phase?
A. The newly released egg will live for 72 hours and disintegrate if not fertilized.
B. The woman will have a low basal body temperature before ovulation and then a temperature increase of 0.4-1’F degrees around ovulation.
C. The ovum is directly released into the fallopian tube.
D. Fertilization most commonly occurs at the fimbria.

693. At term, the ligaments of the pelvis change. This can result in:
A. Increasing rigidity of the pelvis
B. Degeneration of pelvic ground substance
C. Decreasing width of the symphysis
D. Enlargement of the pelvic cavity

694. After birth, where do you expect to assess fundal height?
A. At the xiphoid process
B. 5 cm below the umbilicus
C. 2 cm above the pubic symphysis
D. At or near the umbilicus

695. Which period of gestation does the 2nd trimester represent?
A. 10-20 weeks
B. 14-29 weeks
C. 13-28 weeks
D. 15-30 weeks

696. You’re performing a routine assessment on a mother post-delivery. The uterus is soft and displaced to the left of the umbilicus. What is your next nursing action?
A. Perform fundal massage and assist the patient to the bathroom.
B. Continue to monitor the mother. This is a normal finding post-delivery.
C. Notify the physician.
D. Administer PRN dose of Pitocin as ordered by the physician.

697. Select all the following that is NOT a function of progesterone and estrogen:
A. Inhibits the production of LH and FSH
B. Causes the hypothalamus to release gonadotropin releasing hormone
C. Maintains the endometrium for pregnancy
D. Causes the follicle to shrink

698. Which statement is TRUE regarding abruptio placenta?
A. This condition occurs due to an abnormal attachment of the placenta in the uterus near or over the cervical opening.
B. A marginal abruptio placenta occurs when the placenta is located near the edge of the cervical opening.
C. Nursing interventions for this condition includes measuring the fundal height.
D. Fetal distress is not common in this condition as it is in placenta previa.

699. Your laboring patient has transitioned to stage 2 of labor. What changes in the perineum indicate the birth of the baby is imminent?
A. Increase in meconium-stained fluid and retracting perineum
B. Retracting perineum and anus with an increase of bloody show
C. Rapid and intense contractions
D. Bulging perineum and rectum with an increase in bloody show

700. A 32-year-old is pregnant with twins at 32 weeks gestation. This is her first pregnancy. Which option below best describes the patient’s gravidity and parity?
A. Gravida 2, para 2
B. Gravida 1, para 1
C. Gravida 2, para 0
D. Gravida 1, para 0