301 - 400 Solved Medical Nursing MCQ Test Questions Bank

301. In teaching a patient with pyelonephritis about the disorder, the nurse informs the patient that the organism that causes pyelonephritis most commonly reach the kidneys through
A. An ascending infection
B. The bloodstream
C. A descending infection
D. The lymphatic system

302. The nurse teaches the female patient who has frequent urinary tract infections that she should
A. Urinate after sexual intercourse
B. Take tub baths with bubble bath
C. Take prophylactic sulphonamides for the rest of her life
D. Restrict fluid intake to prevent the need for frequent voiding

303. The nurse informs the patient with nephritic syndrome that the cause of his oedema is as a result of
A. Decreased aldosterone secretion from adrenal insufficiency
B. Increased hydrostatic pressure caused by sodium retention
C. Decreased colloidal osmotic pressure caused by loss of serum albumin
D. Increased fluid retention caused by decreased glomerular filtration

304. A patient is admitted to the hospital with severe renal colicky caused by renal lithiasis. The nurse’s first priority in management of the patient is to
A. Administration of narcotics as prescribed
B. Obtain supplies for staining all urine
C. Encourage fluid intake 3 to 4 litres per day
D. Keep patient N P O in preparation for surgery

305. In planning nursing interventions to increase bladder control in the patient with urinary incontinence, the nurse includes
A. Using incontinence pads to prevent embarrassment
B. Restricting fluid intake after dinner in the evening
C. Clamping and releasing a catheter to increase bladder tone
D. Teaching the patient about feedback mechanisms to supress the urge to urinate

306. A patient with a ureterolithotomy returns from surgery with a nephrostomy tube in place. Postoperative nursing care of the patient includes
A. Encouraging the patient to drink fruit juices and milk
B. Forcing fluids of at least 2 t0 3L per day after nausea has subsided
C. Notifying the physician if nephrostomy tube drainage is more than 30ml/hr
D. Irritating the nephrostomy tube with 10mls of normal saline solution as needed

307. The risk factor for kidney and bladder cancer in a patient who relates a history to a nurse could be as a result of
A. Aspirin use
B. Tobacco use
C. Chronic alcohol abuse
D. Use of artificial sweeteners

308. A patient is admitted to the hospital with chronic renal failure. The nurse understands that this condition is characterised by
A. A rapid decrease in urinary output with azotaemia
B. An increasing creatinine clearance with a decrease in urinary output
C. Progressive irreversible destruction of the kidneys
D. Prostration, somnolence and confusion with coma and imminent death

309. Pre – renal causes of acute renal failure include
A. Prostate cancer and calculi formation
B. Acute glomerular nephritis and neoplasms
C. Septic shock and nephrotoxins injury from drugs
D. Hypovolemia and cardiogenic shock

310. During the oliguric phase of acute renal failure, the nurse monitors the patient for
A. Hypernatraemia and Central Nervous System
B. Kussmaul’s respirations and hypotension
C. Pulmonary oedema and electrical changes in cardiac activity
D. Urine with high specific gravity and low sodium concentration

311. The nurse must monitor which serum electrolyte imbalances in a patient in the diuretic phase of acute renal failure?
A. Hyperkalaemia and hyponatraemia
B. Hyperkalaemia and hypernatraemia
C. Hypokalaemia and hypernatraemia
D. Hypokalaemia and hyponatraemia

312. One of the major disadvantages of peritoneal dialysis is that
A. High glucose concentration of the dialysate necessary for ultrafiltration cause carbohydrate and lipid abnormalities
B. Hypotension is a constant problem because of continuous fluid removal
C. Blood loss can be extensive because of the use of heparin to keep the catheter in patient
D. Solutes are removed more rapidly from the blood than from Central Nervous System, causing disequilibrium syndrome

313. A patient in end stage renal disease on haemodialysis is considering asking a relative to donate a kidney for transplant. In assisting the patient to make a decision about his treatment, the nurse informs the patient that
A. Successful transplantation usually provides better quality of life than that offered by dialysis
B. If rejection of the transplanted kidney occurs no further treatment for the renal failure is available
C. The immunosuppressive therapy that is required following transplantation causes fatal malignancies in many patients
D. Haemodialysis replaces the normal functions of the kidneys and patients do not have to live with the continual fear of rejection

314. Most of the long – term problems that occur in the patient with kidney transplant are as a result of
A. Chronic rejection
B. Immunosuppressive therapy
C. Recurrence of the original renal disease
D. Failure of the patient to follow the prescribed regimen

315. Following a kidney transplant, the nurse teaches the patient signs of rejection include
A. Fever, weight loss, increased urinary output, increased blood pressure
B. Fever, weight gain, increased urinary output, increased blood pressure
C. Fever, weight gain, decreased urinary output, increased blood pressure
D. Fever, weight loss, increased urinary output, decreased blood pressure

316. A condition which is characterised by hyperuricaemia, pain and swelling of smaller joints and as a result of errors of purine metabolism is
A. Osteoporosis
B. Gout
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Osteomalacia

317. Conditions that result in decreased serum albumin will result in
A. Decreased hydrostatic pressure with pressure shifts from the interstitium to the vasculature
B. Increased hydrostatic pressure with plasma shifts from the vasculature to the interstitium
C. Increased oncotic pressure with plasma shifts from the interstitium to the vasculature
D. Decreased oncotic pressure with plasma shifts from the vasculature to the interstitium

318. The nurse implements nursing care for the patient with hypernatraemia taking into consideration
A. Fluid restriction
B. Administration of hypotonic fluids
C. Administration of a cation exchange resin
D. Increased water intake for patients on nasogastric suction

319. Weak, irregular pulse, confusion, poor muscle tone and irritability are common finding during assessments in the patient with
A. Sodium deficit
B. Calcium deficit
C. Potassium deficit
D. Fluid volume deficit

320. Which of the following statements is accurate?
A. Hypercalcaemia rarely occurs from increased calcium intake
B. In patients with hypercalcaemia, it is important to restrict fluid intake
C. Any condition that causes decreased parathyroid hormone results in hypercalcaemia
D. Patients who have had thyroid surgery must be closely monitored to hypercalcaemia

321. The ideal fluid replacement for the patient with E C F fluid volume deficit is
A. Isotonic
B. Hypotonic
C. Hypertonic
D. A plasma expander

322. In respiratory acidosis, compensation would be accomplished be
A. Lungs retaining CO2
B. Lungs eliminating CO2
C. Kidneys eliminating bicarbonate
D. Kidneys retaining bicarbonate

323. The primary cation in the fluid compartment that constitute the greatest percentage of total body water is
A. Sodium
B. Chloride
C. Potassium
D. Calcium

324. The characteristics of the operating room environment that facilitates the prevention of infection in the patient is
A. Adjusting lighting
B. Conducive furniture
C. Filters in the ventilation system
D. Explosion – proof electrical plugs

325. The perioperative nurse’s primary responsibility for the care of the patient undergoing surgery is
A. Developing an individualised plan of nursing care for the patient
B. Carrying out specific tasks related of surgical policies and procedures
C. Ensuring that the patient has been assessed for safe administration of anaesthesia
D. Performing a preoperative history and physical assessment to identify patient needs

326. When scrubbing at the scrub sink, the nurse remembers that
A. Scrub from elbows to the hands
B. Scrub without mechanical friction
C. Scrub for a minimum of 10 minutes
D. Hold the hands higher than the elbows

327. Nursing interventions indicated during the patients recovery from general anaesthesia in the recovery ward include
A. Placing the patient in a supine position
B. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing
C. Restraining patients during anaesthesia of emergency delirium
D. Withholding analgesics until the patient is discharged from the recovery ward

328. Following admission of the post – operative patient to the ward, the most immediate attention
A. Oxygen saturation of 85%
B. Respiratory rate of 13 beats per minute
C. Blood pressure of 90/60mmHg
D. Temperature of 34.60C

329. In preparation for discharge after surgery, the nurse should advise the patient regarding
A. A time frame for when physical activities can be resumed
B. The rationale for abstinence from sexual intercourse for 4 – 6 weeks
C. The need to call the hospital or clinical unit to report any abnormal signs or symptoms
D. The necessity of a referral to nutritional centre for management of dietary restriction

330. Increased intraocular pressure may occur as a result of
A. Oedema of the cornea stroma
B. Blockage of the lacrimal canals and duct
C. Dilation of the retinal arterioles
D. Increase production of aqueous humour by the ciliary process

331. The nurse always assess the patient with an ophthalmic problem for
A. Papillary reactions
B. Visual acuity
C. Intraocular pressure
D. Confrontation visual fields

332. The nurse should specifically question patients using eye drops to treat glaucoma about
A. Use of corrective lenses
B. Their usual sleep pattern
C. A history of heart or lung disease
D. Sensitivity to narcotics or depressants

333. While examining a patient, the nurse notes small, raised. Solid lesions that merge with one another on the patient’s forearm. The nurse would describe this finding as
A. Diffuse pustular gyrate lesions
B. Generalised pustules with confluence
C. Punctuate, macular satellite lesions
D. Confluent, annular papules forming plaque

334. On observing areas of excoriation on the patient’s arms and legs, the nurse would question the patient regarding
A. Itching
B. Sun exposure
C. Excessive sweating
D. Bleeding disorders

335. Palpation of the skin is the most appropriate technique to assess
A. Skin texture
B. The presence of lesions
C. The vascularity of the skin
D. Presence of intertriginous areas

336. In teaching a patient who is using topical corticosteroids to treat an acute dermatitis, the nurse should tell the patient that
A. Topical corticosteroids usually do not cause systemic side effects
B. The cream form represents the most efficient system delivery
C. Abruptly discontinuing the use of topical corticosteroids will cause a reappearance of the dermatitis
D. Creams and ointments should be applied with a glove in small amounts to prevent further infection

337. A patient with psoriasis tells the nurse that she has quit her job as a receptionist because she feels her appearance is disgusting to customers. The nursing diagnosis that best describes this patient’s response is
A. Ineffective coping related to lack of social support
B. Impaired skin integrity related to presence of lesions
C. Anxiety related to lack of knowledge of the disease process
D. Social isolation related to decreased activities secondary to fear of rejection

338. A nurse teaches a patient with malignant melanoma about his disorder. The nurse should make the patient know that the prognosis of the condition is most dependent on
A. The thickness of the lesion
B. The degree of colour change in the lesion
C. How much superficial spread the lesion has
D. The amount of ulceration present in the lesion

339. The nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of Risk for infection transmission as a high priority for the patient with
A. Psoriasis on the palms and soles
B. Candidiasis of the nails
C. Tinea pedis
D. Impetigo on the face

340. A common site for the lesions associated with atopic dermatitis is the
A. Buttocks
B. Temporal areas
C. Antecubital space
D. Palmer surface of the feet

341. Dermatologic symptoms of Cushing’s Syndrome would include
A. Generalised hyperpigmentation
B. Increased sweating
C. Antecubital space
D. Palmer surface of the feet

342. A patient is assessed to be at risk for the development of a pressure ulcer. Based on this information, the nursed should
A. Vigorously massage reddened bony prominences daily
B. Keep head of bed elevated to 900 at all times
C. Implement a 2 hourly turning of patient
D. Have the patient maintain a high fat diet

343. The mechanism that stimulates the release of surfactant is
A. Deep breathing that stretches the alveoli
B. Collapse of the alveoli that activates type I cells
C. Activation of type II cells by fluid accumulation in the alveoli
D. Movement of air from the alveolus through the pores of Kohn

344. During inspiration, air enters the thoracic cavity as a result of
A. Stimulation of the respiratory muscles by the chemoreceptors
B. An increase in CO2 and decrease in O2 in the blood
C. Decrease in intrathoracic pressure relative to pressure at the airway
D. An increased intrathoracic pressure relative to pressure at the airway

345. A diagnostic study that is most likely to be normal in a patient with pneumonia is
A. Oximetry
B. Chest x – ray
C. Sputum C and S
D. Pulmonary angiogram

346. When assessing activity – exercise patterns related to respiratory health, the nurse inquires about
A. Dyspnoea during rest or exercise
B. Recent weight loss or weight gain
C. Willingness to wear oxygen in public
D. Ability to sleep through the entire night

347. A patient was seen in clinic for an episode of epistaxis, which was controlled by placement of anterior nasal packing. During discharge teaching, the nurse instruct the patient to
A. Use aspirin or aspirin – containing compounds for pain relief
B. Apply ice compresses to the nose every 4 hours for the first 48 hours
C. Avoid vigorous nose blowing and strenuous activity
D. Leave the packing in place for 7 to 10 days until it is removed by the physician

348. In assessing a patient with pneumococcal pneumonia, the nurse recognises that clinical manifestations of this include
A. Fever, chills and a productive cough with rust – coloured sputum
B. A non – productive cough and night sweats that are usually self – limiting
C. A gradual onset of nasal stiffness, sore throat and purulent productive cough
D. An abrupt onset of fever, non – productive cough and formation of lung abscesses

349. A patient with tuberculosis has a nursing diagnosis of non – compliance. The nurse recognises that he most common etiologic factor for this diagnosis in patients with T B is
A. Fatigue and lack of energy to manage self – care
B. Lack of knowledge about how the disease is transmitted
C. Little or no motivation to adhere to long – term drug regimen
D. Feelings of shame and the response to the social stigma associated with T B

350. A patient is on high doses of corticosteroids and broad – spectrum antibiotics for treatment of serious trauma and infection. The nursed should be aware that this patient is susceptible to
A. Candidiasis
B. Aspergillosis
C. Histoplasmosis
D. Coccidiodomycosis

351. Which of the following can be found in the saliva?
A. Amylase, which digest cellulose
B. Lysosomes, which has a weak antibacterial action
C. Serous fluid which increases primarily by sympathetic stimulation
D. Enzyme which digest protein

352. Which of the following conditions causes inhibition of gastric secretion?
A. Distension of the duodenal wall
B. Fats in the duodenum
C. pH less than 2 in the duodenum
D. pH more than 2 in the duodenum

353. Which of the under listed hormones cause contraction of the gall bladder?
A. Cholecystokinin
B. Gastrin
C. Gastric inhibitory polypeptide
D. Secretin

354. The painful or burning sensation in the chest usually associated with acid reflux in the oesophagus is called
A. Angina
B. A duodenal ulcer
C. Heart burn
D. A peptic ulcer

355. The lymphatic capillaries in the villi of the small intestines are called
A. Crypts of Lieberkuhn
B. Lacteals
C. Microvilli
D. Peyer’s Patches

356. During the function of the heart, the heart valves
A. Cause the heart sound when they open
B. Contract to pump blood through the heart
C. Prevent blood from flowing backward through the heart
D. Separate the left and right sides of the heart

357. The right ventricles of the heart acts as a pump for the
A. Coronary circulation
B. Hepatic portal circulation
C. Pulmonary circulation
D. Systemic circulation

358. The artrioventricular valves open when pressure in the
A. Atria is greater than pressure in the ventricles
B. Arteries is greater than pressure in the ventricles
C. Ventricles is greater than the pressure in the arteries
D. Ventricles is greater than the pressure in the atria

359. Which of the following factors would increase stroke volume?
A. Increased arterial blood pressure
B. Increased end diastolic
C. Increased sympathetic stimulation of the myocardium
D. Increased venous return

360. Which of the under listed is a function of the pleural fluid?
A. Helps fill the pleural cavity
B. Holds the visceral and parietal pleural membranes together
C. Increases diffusion rates in the lungs
D. Prevents the lungs from overinflating

361. Oxygen and carbon dioxide move through the respiratory membrane and into and out of cells by the process of
A. Active transport
B. Cotransport
C. Diffusion
D. Facilitated diffusion

362. Electrolytes are responsible for all the following except
A. Maintaining the osmolality of the body fluid compartment
B. Regulating the balance of acids and bases
C. Aiding in neurologic and neuromuscular conduction
D. Regulating body fluids

363. Major intracellular fluid electrolytes include
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Chloride
D. Bicarbonate

364. Cations are defined as
A. Positively charged ions
B. Negative.ly charged ions
C. Enzyme like substances
D. Precursors of electrolytes

365. The chief cation found in the extracellular fluid is
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Chloride
D. Phosphorus

366. When caring for a patient who has had a small bowel obstruction resection and is 1 day postoperative, the nurse is aware that the patient is at risk for electrolyte imbalance because of
A. Impaired nutrient intake
B. Impaired exchange between anions and cations
C. Pain
D. Impaired endocrine stimulation

367. Which of the following sources is a normal source of electrolyte intake?
A. Medications
B. Gatorade
C. IV solutions
D. Hyperalimentation

368. Which of the following statements is not true?
A. I C F electrolytes are found within the cell membrane
B. I C F electrolytes are not measureable
C. I C F electrolytes have non variable concentration
D. I C F electrolytes

369. When assessing a patient with hypernatraemia, the nurse would expect to find
A. Serum sodium level of 135mEq/litre
B. Moist mucous membrane
C. Thirst
D. Hypoactive reflexes

370. Patients at high risk for hyponatraemia include all the following except
A. Patients receiving hypertonic total parenteral nutrition
B. Patients on diuretic therapy
C. Burn victims
D. Patients with gastric suctioning

371. When E C F sodium is decreased, the adrenal glands send aldosterone to the kidneys to
A. Increase sodium reabsorption
B. Decrease sodium reabsorption
C. Increase water reabsorption
D. Decrease water reabsorption

372. When caring for a patient with hypernatraemia, the nurse is careful to administer
A. Water
B. Sodium
C. Potassium
D. Chloride

373. When caring for a patient with hyponatraemia, the nurse is careful to restrict
A. Water
B. Sodium
C. Potassium
D. Chloride

374. Which of the following IV solutions would the nurse administer for a patient with hypernatraemia?
A. 3% saline
B. 0.33% saline
C. D5W
D. Ringers Lactate solution

375. The nurse should administer hypertonic IV solutions with caution because these solutions will force
A. Water to leave the E C F
B. Water to leave the I C F
C. Cellular swellings
D. Hydrostatic pressure to drop

376. Aldosterone reabsorption of sodium occurs after stimulation with
A. A C T H
B. Insulin
C. A D H
D. Pitocin

377. When assessing a patient for potassium deficits, the nurse is aware that the normal serum potassium level ranges from
A. 1.5 – 3.5mEq/litre
B. 2.5 – 4.5mEq/litre
C. 3.5 – 5.0mEq/litre
D. 4.0 – 7.5mEq/litre

378. Which of the following symptoms is not associated with hypokalaemia
A. Muscle cramps
B. U waves on E C K
C. Paraesthesia
D. Hyperreflexia

379. When assessing a patient for hyperkalaemia, the nurse would not assess
A. U waves on E C G
B. Paraesthesia
C. Muscle cramps
D. Tented T waves on E C G

380. Before administering a medication containing potassium, an important nursing intervention is to check the patient’s
A. E C G
B. Pulse
C. Blood pressure
D. Urine output

381. When caring for a patient with hypercalcaemia, the nurse should plan to administer which of the following drugs?
A. Inderal
B. Bicarbonate
C. Lasix
D. Mannitol

382. The most dangerous sequel of hypercalcaemia is
A. Constipation
B. Muscle weakness
C. Dyspnoea
D. Dysrhythmias

383. Which of the following metabolic conditions places a patient at high risk for hypercalcaemia?
A. Myxoedema
B. Exercise
C. Hyperphosphotaemia
D. Hyperparathyroidism

384. When educating a patient about foods high in calcium, the nurse would be recommended
A. Canned fish
B. Coffee
C. Dry beans
D. Meat

385. Normal calcium levels are
A. 800mg
B. 1200mg
C. 8.5 – 10.5mg/dl
D. 2.5 – 4.5mg/dl

386. Serum calcium levels rise with metastatic done because of
A. Hyperphosphotaemia
B. Osteoporosis
C. Chemotherapy
D. Accelerated bone metabolism

387. A client with pyrexia would demonstrate
A. Dyspnoea
B. Elevated blood pressure
C. Increased pulse rate
D. Precordial pain

388. Red blood cell production is controlled by
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Pancreas
D. Spleen

389. Pleuritic pain from irritation of the parietal pleura is best described as
A. Catchy
B. Sharp
C. Cutting
D. Pinching

390. Wheezing is a high pitched musical sound heard mainly on
A. Coughing
B. Inspiration
C. Expiration
D. Whistling

391. The bluish colouring of the skin in respiratory condition is known as
A. Clubbing
B. Dyspnoea
C. Haemoptysis
D. Cyanosis

392. Clubbing of the fingers is a sign of
A. Anaemia
B. Cyanosis
C. Dehydration
D. Chronic lung diseases

393. The closure or collapse of the alveoli is known as
A. Atelectasis
B. Arteriosclerosis
C. Epistaxis
D. Sleep anoea

394. Community pneumonia occurs with the first……………….of hospitalisation
A. 24 hours
B. Week
C. 48 hours
D. Two weeks

395. When providing care for a patient with thrombocytopenia, the nurse must avoid administering aspirin or aspirin containing products because they
A. Interfere with platelet aggregation
B. May contribute to the destruction of thrombocytes
C. May mask the fever that occurs with thrombocytopenia
D. Alter blood flow to the homeostatic mechanisms in the brain

396. The nurse would expect that a patient with Von Willebrand’s disease undergoing surgery would be treated with administration of V W F and
A. Factor VI
B. Factor VII
C. Factor VIII
D. Thrombin

397. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (D I C) is a disorder in which
A. The coagulation pathway is genetically altered leading to thrombus formation in all major blood vessels
B. An underlying disease depletes haemolytic factors in the blood leading diffuse thrombotic episodes and infarcts
C. A disease process stimulates coagulation processes with resultant depletion of clotting factors leading to diffuse haemorrhage
D. An inherited predisposition causes deficiency of clotting factors that leads to overstimulation of coagulation processes in the vasculature

398. When obtaining assessment data from a patient with microcytic normocytic anaemia, the nurse would question the patient about
A. Folic acid intake
B. Dietary intake of iron
C. A history of gastric surgery
D. A history of sickle cell anaemia

399. A nursing intervention for a patient with severe anaemia of chronic disease includes
A. Monitoring stools for guaiac
B. Instructions on high iron intake
C. Monitoring urine intake and output
D. Teaching self – injection of erythropoietin

400. The nursing management of a patient in sickle cell crisis includes
A. Bed rest and heparin therapy
B. Blood transfusions and iron replacement
C. Aggressive analgesics and oxygen therapy
D. Platelet administration and monitoring