401 - 500 Solved Medical Nursing MCQ Test Questions Bank

401. A complication of hyperviscosity of polycythaemia is
A. Thrombosis
B. Cardiomyopathy
C. Pulmonary oedema
D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (D I C)

402. Myelodysplastic syndromes are thought to arise from the pluripotent haemotopoietic stemcell in the bone marrow. A nurse should therefore expect a laboratory results which contain
A. An excess of platelets
B. An excess of T cell
C. A deficiency of granulocytes
D. A deficiency of all cellular blood components

403. A doctor has ordered multiple drug combinations as the first line treatment of leukaemia and lymphoma because
A. There are fewer toxic and side effects
B. The chance that one drug will be effective is increased
C. They can interrupt cell growth at multiple points in the cell cycle
D. They are more effective without having exacerbation side effects

404. A patient in your ward with multiple myeloma complains of confusion and lethargy. The nurse would expect that these clinical features or manifestations may be explained by diagnostic result that indicate
A. Hyperkalaemia
B. Hyperuricaemia
C. Hypercalcaemia
D. Central Nervous System

405. When checking the capillary filling time of a patient, the nurse recognises that the colour of the nail bed returns in 10 seconds, the finding is an indicative of
A. A normal response
B. Thrombus formation in the veins
C. Lymphatic obstruction of venous return
D. Impaired arterial flow to the extremities

406. A patient in your ward has been scheduled for an invasive cardiovascular diagnostic study. An important nursing responsibility for the patient is
A. Checking the peripheral pulses and percutaneous sites
B. Instructing the patient about radioactive isotope injection
C. Informing the patient that general anaesthesia will be given
D. Assisting the patient to do a surgical scrub of the insertion site

407. Mr Lazarazu has undergone E C G because the doctor suspects myocardial infarction after taking his history. As a senior nurse, a P wave on the E C G represents an impulse
A. Arising at the S A node and repolarising the atria
B. Arising at the S A node1 and depolarising the atria
C. Arising at the A V node and depolarising the atria
D. Arising at the A V node and spreading to the bundle of His

408. In general, nutrient or food interactions with medications can result in all of the following except
A. Enhancing drug absorption
B. Retarding drug bioavailability
C. Increasing a nutrient requirement
D. All the above can happen

409. A successful goal of treatment that a nurse may recognise in a patient with anorexia nervosa is when the patient
A. Demonstrate a rapid weight gain
B. Consumes the required daily intake of nutrients
C. Commits a long – term individual and family counselling
D. Verbalises feelings regarding self – image and fears of becoming obese

410. A patient with Vincent’s infection should be taught that his/her treatment will include
A. Smallpox vaccination
B. Viscous lidocaine rinses
C. Amphotericin B suspension
D. Topical application of antibiotics

411. The most appropriate nursing intervention to provide oral care for a patient unable to do this for himself involves
A. Applying a fluoride solution to the surface of the teeth
B. Using oral antimicrobial agents to reduce local bacterial counts
C. Brushing and flossing the patient’s teeth
D. Swabbing the patient’s mouth with soft foam applications soaked with mouth wash

412. In assessing a patient with oesophageal achalasia the nurse would expect the patient to say or report
A. A history to say or report
B. A sore throat and hoarseness
C. Dysphagia, especially with liquids
D. Relief of pyrosis with the use of antacids

413. Mrs Julles, aged 85 is reported of nausea all day and has vomited twice. From your assessment data, you instruct that she be given
A. Antispasmodic drugs and observe skin turgor
B. Mouth sips of water and elevate the head of her bed to prevent aspiration
C. Offer her large quantities of sodium containing drinks since elderly people are at risk for sodium depletion
D. Offer her high protein liquid supplement to drink to maintain her nutritional needs

414. The pernicious anaemia that may accompany gastritis may be due to
A. Chronic autoimmune destruction of cobalamine stores in the body
B. Progressive gastric atrophy from chronic breakage in the mucosal barrier and blood loss
C. A lack of intrinsic factor normally produced by acid – secreting cells of the gastric mucosa
D. Hyperchlorhydria resulting from an increase in acid secreting parietal cells and degrading of R B Cs

415. Discharge teachings for a patient with acute episodes of G I bleeding will include information concerning the importance of
A. Taking only medications prescribed by the physician
B. Avoiding taking aspirin with acidic beverages such as orange juice
C. Taking all medications 1 hour before meal time to prevent further bleeding
D. Reading all O T C medications labels to avoid medications containing stearic acid and calcium

416. You are teaching your patient and her family about possible causes of peptic ulcers. You explain that ulcer formation is
A. Inherited within families and reinforce by bacterial spread of staphylococcus aureus in childhood
B. Promoted by factors that tend to cause over secretion of acid, such as excess dietary fats, smoking and B pylori
C. Caused by a stressful lifestyle and other acid – producing factors such as B pylori
D. Promoted by a combination of possible factors that may result in erosion of the gastric mucosa including certain medications and alcohol

417. Several patients are hit by symptoms of nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea that started after attending a family reunion pot luck dinner. The nurse question the patients specifically about foods they ingested containing
A. Beef
B. Meat and milk
C. Poultry and eggs
D. Home preserved vegetables

418. The nurse notifies the physician, suspecting a possible ruptured appendix when the patient has
A. A low grade fever with a leucocytosis
B. A distended, rigid abdomen and muscle
C. Right lower quadrant pain on palpation of the left lower quadrant
D. Localised abdominal pain hallway between the umbilicus and the right iliac

419. When the vascular volume is depleted, the nurse can expect the sign of
A. Decreased urine output, postural hypotension and tachycardia
B. Increased urine output, postural hypotension and tachycardia
C. Tachycardia, hypertension and decreased urine output
D. Tachycardia, hypertension and increased urine output

420. A flat x – ray could reveal which of the following about the kidneys?
A. Decreased glomerular function
B. Enlargement due to hydronephrosis
C. Renal calculi
D. Hypoperfusion of the kidneys

421. With acid retention respiratory compensation is manifested as
A. A cheyne – stroke respiratory pattern
B. An increased depth breathing
C. Decreased respiratory rate and depth
D. Increased arterial carbon dioxide levels

422. A client in uraemia will have all the following except
A. Uremic halitosis or stomatitis
B. Hiccups and anorexia
C. Spider haemangioma
D. Nausea and vomiting

423. Which of the following is a result of kidney failure? Excessive hydrogen ions
A. Cannot be excreted
B. Are counteracted by ammonia
C. Anteroposterior lung sounds
D. Weight gain with even muscle development

424. Which of the following is not a complication related to tracheal suctioning?
A. Hypoxia
B. Tissue trauma
C. Infection
D. Bronchodilation

425. A client with chronic bronchitis often shows signs of hypoxia. The nurse would observe for which of the following clinical manifestations of this problem?
A. Increased capillary refill
B. Clubbing of fingers
C. Pink mucous membrane
D. Overall pale appearance

426. A client has been diagnosed with a chronic airflow limitation problem. Which of the following is not a disease of chronic airflow limitation?
A. Bronchiectasis
B. Bronchial asthma
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Pulmonary emphysema

427. A body structure primarily affected by pneumonia is which of the following?
A. Bronchi
B. Pharynx
C. Alveoli
D. Trachea

428. An assessment of which of the following would most likely follow or accompany rhinitis?
A. Pharyngitis
B. Tonsillitis
C. Laryngitis
D. Sinusitis

429. The diagnostic test most often performed to assess valvular heart disease is
A. Echocardiogram
B. Electrocardiography
C. Exercise testing
D. Thallium scanning

430. A pregnant woman was admitted at your ward. The nurse will assess reduction in edema by using the following nursing interventions EXCEPT:
Select One:
A. Weigh patient daily with same scale before breakfast
B. Measure abdominal girth using measuring tape
C. Assess the elasticity of skin turgor
D. None of the above

431. A urine specimen for ketones should be removed from a client’s retention catheter by:
Select One:
A. Using a sterile syringe to remove it from clamped, cleansed catheter
B. Cleansing the drainage valve and removing it from the catheter bag
C. Disconnecting the catheter and draining it into a clean container
D. None of the above

432. An important nursing responsibility after intravenous pyelogram is to:
Select One:
A. Encourage extra oral fluid intake
B. Assess the patient for flank pain
C. Observe urine for remaining contrast material
D. None of the above

433. The nurse is assigned to give Ms. Milton perineal care. When cleansing the perineum, the cotton ball or wash cloth is gently directed:
Select One:
A. Downward from the pubic area to the anus
B. Side to side across the labia majora
C. Prom the urinary meatus to the vagina
D. None of the above

434. Although no cause has been determined for scleroderma, it is thought to be caused by:
Select One:
A. Autoimmunity
B. Ocular motility
C. Increased amino acid metabolism
D. None of the above

435. The nurse assesses the client with cholecystitis for the development of obstructive jaundice, which would be evidenced by:
Select One:
A. Straw-colored urine, putty-colored stools, yellow sclerae
B. Dark-colored urine, clay colored stools, itchy skin
C. Light amber urine, dark brown stools, yellow skin
D. None of the above

436. The nurse encourages strict diabetic control in the patient prone to diabetic nephropathy knowing that the renal tissue changes that may occur in this condition include:
Select One:
A. Uric acid calculi and nephrolithiasis
B. Thickening of the glomerular basement membrane and glomerulosclerosis
C. Renal sugar – crystal calculi and cyst
D. None of the above

437. Clients with fractured mandibles usually have them immobilized with wires. The life-threatening problem that can develop postoperatively is:
Select One:
A. Vomiting
B. Infection
C. Osteomyelitis
D. None of the above

438. Mr. Doe has been diagnosed of having increased intracranial pressure. His nursing care activities would include all EXCEPT:
Select One:
A. Assisting him with isometric exercise
B. Avoiding activities that interfere with venous drainage from the head
C. Teaching him to exhale when being turned
D. None of the above

439. Nurse assistant attending a nursing conference hears that one of her clients has hydrocele. She asks the nurse how this condition is treated. The most common response is:
Select One:
A. Usually the problem requires more medical or surgical intervention
B. Surgery may be necessary to correct the problem
C. Drug therapy usually helps control the collection of fluid
D. None of the above

440. Madam Besiwaa aged 50, came to your unit hypovolemic shock. What will be the nurse’s first action to take during the compensatory stage of shock?
Select One:
A. Monitor the patient’s hemodynamic status
B. Administer prescribed IV fluids
C. Assist in identifying and treating the underlying causes
D. None of the above

441. The risk of osteoporosis is increased when an individual:
Select One:
A. Takes excessive amount of oestrogen
B. Has a history 0f hypoparathyroidism
C. Receive long term steroid therapy
D. None of the above

442. Mr. Mainoo had a CVA and was aphasic. His data would include which of the following:
Select One:
A. Left sided hemiplegia
B. Right sided hemiplegia
C. Paraplegia
D. None of the above

443. The nurse’s duty in preventing thrombosis in patients includes: I. Breathing exercise II. Early ambulation of patient III. Passive exercise of the legs IV. Providing enough rest for patient
Select One:
A. I, II and IV
B. I, II and III
C. I, II, III and IV
D. None of the above

444. A child was brought to the hospital following prolonged vomiting. When a patient is having prolonged vomiting, the nurse assesses her for:
Select One:
A. Acidosis
B. Osmolarity
C. Alkalosis
D. None of the above

445. Mrs. Hulu has had an electrocauterization of her cervix for chronic cervicitis. Following the procedure Nurse Gomado should instruct Mrs. Hulu to:
Select One:
A. Avoid straining and heavy lifting until the physician permits this activity
B. Return in bed for the next 5 days
C. Stay in bed for the next 5 days
D. None of the above

446. Mr. Ansah reported to your health facility and he was diagnosed of acute duodenal ulcer. A patient with duodenal ulcer would probably describe the associated pain as:
Select One:
A. Gnawing sensation relieved by food
B. Ache radiating to the left side
C. Intermittent colicky flank pain
D. None of the above

447. In nursing Mr. Anum, a 40 year old vegetarian with malnutrition, what will be the nurse’s great concern?
Select One:
A. Intake of vitamin A rich food
B. Intake of foods rich in iron
C. Intake of foods rich in folate
D. None of the above

448. Ama, a 7year old child in your ward is receiving CPR. How many breaths per minute would be delivered?
Select One:
A. 20
B. 18
C. 22
D. None of the above

449. Which of the following are the common types of chronic pain? I. Pain with obvious on – going peripheral pathology II. Chronic benign pain that may have peripheral or central pathology III. Pain that subsides and gradually disappears IV. Recurrent acute pain
Select One:
A. I, II, and III
B. All of the above
C. I and II
D. None of the above

450. The nurse is assigned to teach health-seeking behaviors to young women. One topic the nurse plans to include is the importance of the Pap test, which is used mainly to detect:
Select One:
A. Cervical cancer
B. Ovarian cyst
C. Uterine infections
D. None of the above

451. A nurse at the Outpatient Department was asked to do genetic counselling for couple who wants to get married. what will be the role of the nurse in genetic counseling I. Coordinating genetic relation healthcare with relevant community resources. II. Gathers relevant data about the family III. Offer support to patient and family only at the beginning of the counseling process IV. Provide appropriate genetic information
Select One:
A. I, II, III and IV
B. I, II and IV
C. II and III
D. None of the above

452. The nurse is asked to discuss the signs and symptoms of vaginitis caused by the fungus candida albicans with Ms. Barrows. Which one of the following is a usual sign and symptoms of this infection?
Select One:
A. High fever
B. Intensive vaginal and perineal itching
C. Pain high in the abdomen
D. None of the above

453. A student collapsed in front of your health facility and was rushed inside. The student recovered in a few munities and you suspected epilepsy. Which of the following describes epilepsy?
Select One:
A. Occasional irregular brain waves
B. Head injury or brain cell death
C. Involuntary loss of consciousness
D. None of the above

454. The priority nursing diagnosis for a patient with chronic lymphocytic leukemia who is very weak and cachectic would be:
Select One:
A. Impaired gas exchange
B. Fluid volume deficit
C. Potential of haemorrhage
D. None of the above

455. Which of the following would indicate to the nurse that the stationary thrombus in Mrs. Frimpong suddenly develops?
Select One:
A. Numbness in the foot
B. Leg cramps
C. Swelling of the knee
D. None of the above

456. The occurrence of chronic illness is greatest in:
Select One:
A. Adolescents
B. Older adult
C. Young children
D. None of the above

457. Madam Esi Ndoom has been diagnosed of acute coronary syndrome and is on admission on the medical ward. To identify nervous system involvement of patient condition, the nurse assesses for:
Select One:
A. Anxiety, restlessness, palpitations, heart murmurs
B. Anxiety, restlessness, feeling of impending doom
C. Anxiety, restlessness, decrease muscle contractility
D. None of the above

458. The nurse is performing an irrigation of the left ear of Madam Akos Boamaah with impacted cerumen. What be the nurses best action?
Select One:
A. Gentle pull the pinna down and backwards
B. Gentle pull the pinna back and upwards
C. Instruct the patient to tilt the head backwards
D. None of the above

459. The student nurse checks the oxygen saturation of a 60 year old man with pneumonia who has removed the oxygen catheter and the result is 70 percent. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select One:
A. Nebulize patient
B. Put the oxygen catheter back on the patient
C. Inform the charge nurse that oxygen saturation Is normal
D. None of the above

460. Mrs. Abruakwa was diagnosed of gastritis. The basic goal underlying dietary management of gastritis is to:
Select One:
A. Eliminate chemical, mechanical and thermal irritation
B. Promote adequate amounts of all important nutrients
C. Increase the amount of bulk and roughage in the diet
D. None of the above

461. A nurse planning care for Brenya who is suffering from hypercalcaemia would make the following relevant nursing diagnosis EXCEPT:
Select One:
A. Fluid volume deficit related diarrhea
B. Activity intolerance related to neuromuscular weakness
C. Ineffective breathing pattern related to respiratory muscle weakness
D. None of the above

462. Mr. Assan was rushed to the emergency unit following a sudden collapse. There is a need for cardiopulmonary resuscitation to be initiated. When preforming the CPR on an adult patient what is the correct hand placement at the sternum?
Select One:
A. Upper third
B. Lower third
C. Lower half
D. None of the above

463. Mr. Doe had vasectomy. He asked the nurse why he must use a method of birth control because today he had a sterilization procedure. The most correct answer is:
Select One:
A. The sperm count will not be negative until his testosterone level decrease
B. Some minor surgery usually is necessary to ensure sterilization
C. Some live sperm will be present in the ejaculatory fluid for a period of time
D. None of the above

464. Which of these observations will indicate that a patient has a stone lodged in the cystic duct?
Select One:
A. Jaundice, dark urine and clay colored stools
B. Colicky pain after fatty meal
C. Burning pain and frequency of micturition
D. None of the above

465. Eunice Dede, a known Upper Respiratory Tract Infections (URTI) client reported to the health facility to treat herself. The airway clearance of patient with upper respiratory tract infection is facilitated by the following EXCEPT:
Select One:
A. Decreasing systemic hydration
B. Administering prescribed digitalis
C. Humidifying inspired room air
D. None of the above

466. Maame Abena brought her 9year old daughter to the ward for medical assistance. The daughter was diagnosed of leukaemia. Which type of Leukaemia is the most common in young children?
Select One:
A. Chronic lymphoblastic
B. Acute lymphoblastic
C. Acute myeloid
D. None of the above

467. Mr. Kunadu had a dyspneic attack and was rushed to the emergency unit for prompt intervention. Nursing management of a patient with mild exertional dyspnea includes:
Select One:
A. Administering oxygen to patient before engaging in any activity
B. Promoting rest and spacing activities
C. Encouraging patient to walk slowly and with assistance
D. None of the above

468. The nurse is assigned to administer a vaginal irrigation (douche). Which of the following is correct?
Select One:
A. The nozzle is inserted downward and backward within the vagina
B. The temperature of the solution should be between 80°F and 84°F
C. The irrigation is best administered with the client standing in a bathtub
D. None of the above

469. The nurse should explain to the client with psoriasis that treatment usually involves:
Select One:
A. Avoiding exposure to the sun
B. Topical application of steroids
C. Debridement of necrotic plaques
D. None of the above

470. A female bedridden patient has developed intermittent incontinence of urine and faeces. The nurse should teach the caregiver to:
Select One:
A. Limit patient’s fluid intake
B. Use a diaper or washable adult size napkin
C. Place patient on a bed pan 2 hourly
D. None of the above

471. Miss Berchie is an admitted client following an acute glomerulonephritis. Acute glomerulonephritis may follow streptococcal sore throat as a result of which of the following?
Select One:
A. Renal tubules become obstructed with protein
B. Renal tubules are blocked by the streptococcus
C. Antigen- antibody complexes developed within the kidney
D. None of the above

472. Which of these is true of a patient suffering from liver cirrhosis?
Select One:
A. Normal prothrombin time
B. Increased serum albumin
C. Urine appears dark brown
D. None of the above

473. How would you educate a female patient who has developed signs of masculinity while on medication for Addison’s disease?
Select One:
A. Reassure her that the signs will disappear after the therapy
B. Explain to her that it is a symptom of the disease
C. Inform her that is due to the therapy
D. None of the above

474. Mr. Tetteh, a diabetic patient who is being nursed by nurse Akorley. During drug administration, the patient understands that insulin is usually not taken by mouth because it:
Select One:
A. Is absorbed slowly in the gastrointestinal tract
B. Inhibits the action of pancreatic digestive enzymes
C. Is destroyed by gastric juice
D. None of the above

475. Abena Menu has recurrent of malaria. A serious complication of malaria is:
Select One:
A. Anaemia and haemorrhage
B. Impaired peristalsis
C. Black water fever
D. None of the above

476. Following a bilateral lumbar sympathectomy a client has a sudden drop in blood pressure but no. evidence of bleeding. The nurse recognizes that this is most likely caused by:
Select One:
A. A reallocation of the blood supply
B. The after effects of anesthesia
C. An inadequate fluid intake
D. None of the above

477. Complication of prostatitis includes: I. Epididymitis II. Pyelonephritis III. Urinary retention IV. Septicaemia
Select One:
A. I, II and III
B. II and III
C. I, II, III and IV
D. None of the above

478. Alhaji Bashiru has been diagnosed of peptic ulcer and is on admission at your ward. Which of the following clinical manifestations confirms that he has a duodenal ulcer pain occurs?
Select One:
A. 30 minutes to 1 hour after meals
B. 30 minutes to 1 hour before meals
C. 2 to 3 hours after meals
D. None of the above

479. Maame Yaa was admitted at the female’s ward. The Apical and Radial pulse of a cardiac patient was checked. What will be the difference between the Apical and Radial pulse?
Select One:
A. Bradycardia
B. Tachycadia
C. Pulse deficit
D. None of the above

480. Mr. Marfo, 76 years been discharged after he was managed for angina pectoris. Which of the following should the nurse include in his teaching?
Select One:
A. Eat diet high in fiber
B. Avoid alcohol
C. Reduced smoking
D. None of the above

481. Nursing interventions that should be implemented to obtain an intact skin in an elderly stroke patient is to: I. Change position 2 hourly II. Encourage passive exercises III. Ensure bed is dry at all times IV. Monitor intravenous fluids as prescribed
Select One:
A. I, II and III
B. II, III, and IV
C. I, II, III and IV
D. None of the above

482. The most useful plan of care for a patient suffering from right-sided hemiplegia is:
Select One:
A. Bilateral straight leg raising exercises
B. Muscle strengthening exercises for the right limb
C. Full range passive exercise 2 or 3 times daily
D. None of the above

483. Risk factors associated with aspiration pneumonia include: I. Delayed emptying of the stomach II. Nasogastric tube feeding III. Obesity IV. Unconsciousness
Select One:
A. II, III and IV
B. I, II, III and IV
C. I, II and IV
D. None of the above

484. Mr. Boateng is diagnosed of the Meniere’s (lesion) of the ear disease and is been discharged. Which of the following is an appropriate teaching on regarding diet?
Select One:
A. Drink at least 2litres of fluid per day
B. Avoid excess use of caffeine
C. Follow a high fiber diet
D. None of the above

485. Madam Ageni Boya, a 41year old who has vomited severally is likely to be diagnosed of:
Select One:
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Respiratory acidosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. None of the above

486. The nurse must help the client with pemphigus vulgaris deal with the resulting:
Select One:
A. Paralysis
B. Skin lesions
C. Impaired digestion
D. None of the above

487. Sampson, a client is scheduled for a cystectomy and asks the nurse what the physician will be able to see during the procedure. The most correct reply is the:
Select One:
A. Bladder and rectum
B. Urethra and bladder
C. Prostate and ureters
D. None of the above

488. The nurse informs Abena Awuah, a patient of tuberculin test which is positive. Which of the under-listed statements indicates that Abena Awuah understands the test results?
Select One:
A. “I have had complete healing of primary lesions”
B. “I have had previous exposure to tuberculosis”
C. “Currently, I have no active tuberculosis”
D. None of the above

489. Mrs. Betty Laryeh, age 29, holes that she has recently developed a skin problem and makes an appointment to be seen in a clinic specializing diagnosis of psoriasis is made by the physician. When examining Mrs. Laryeh’s skin for areas of psoriasis, the nurse should look for:
Select One:
A. Patches of redness covered with silvery scales
B. Areas of redness surrounded by crusts
C. A rash characterized by raised, pus-filled lesions
D. None of the above

490. A female nurse is assigned to obtain a history from & client with a urinary tract problem a sexual dysfunction. Which of the following statements might place the client more at ease and willing to give a history of his problem?
Select One:
A. “Why do you think you have a problem?”
B. “When did you first notice this problem?”
C. “Does your sexual dysfunction seem to be related to your urinary tract problem?”
D. None of the above

491. An admitted patient has been dehydrated due to profuse sweating and vomiting for some couple of days. One of the nursing interventions for a dehydrated patient is to encourage fluid intake. This means patient is given:
Select One:
A. A glass of water after each meal
B. On glass of water every 2 hours
C. Frequent small volumes of water
D. None of the above

492. A patient with restlessness, agitations, twitching, convulsion and serum sodium greater than 145Eq/L can be said to be suffering from which of the following?
Select One:
A. Hypercalcaemia
B. Hypernatraemia
C. Hypokalaemia
D. None of the above

493. After a prostatectomy, a client complains of painful bladder spasms. To limit these spasms the nurse should:
Select One:
A. Encourage the client not to contract his muscles as if he were voiding
B. Administer a narcotic every 4 hours
C. Irrigate the foley catheter with 60 ml of normal saline
D. None of the above

494. As a preceptor on the ward, how will you explain vertigo to a second year RGN student?
Select One:
A. Having a feeling of light headedness and dizziness
B. A feeling of restlessness and listlessness
C. A feeling of dizziness and discomfort
D. None of the above

495. In assessing a patient for psychosocial genetic health, the patient understands that the following areas will be assessed the nurse: I. ability to make informed decision II. educational level III. past coping mechanism IV. social support
Select One:
A. II, III and IV
B. I, II and IV
C. I, II, III, and IV
D. None of the above

496. A client with full-thickness burns on the chest has a skin graft. During the first 24 hours after a skin graft, care of the donor site includes immediately reporting.
Select One:
A. Separation of the edges of the non-adherent dressing
B. A moderate area of serosanguinous oozing
C. Small amount of yellowish green oozing
D. None of the above

497. If Mrs. Darko tells the nurse her feet are cold. Which of the following nursing action would be best?
Select One:
A. Elevate her feet on a stool
B. Wrap them in a warm blanket
C. Apply a hot water bottle
D. None of the above

498. The nurses should assess a client with psoriasis for which of the following?
Select One:
A. Multiple petechiae
B. Shiny, scaly lesions
C. Pruritic lesions
D. None of the above

499. The following clinical assessment findings are indications that the patient has grave’s disease.
Select One:
A. Dysphagia, fever, restlessness
B. Exophthalmos, palpitation, nervousness
C. Chronic pain and tenderness of the thyroid gland
D. None of the above

500. A patient on the ward is been manage for severe dehydration. The nurse in planning care for this patient should be alert for the following risk factors: I. Diabetes insipidus II. Excessive vomiting III. Gastrointestinal suctioning IV. Osmotic diuresis
Select One:
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. I and II
D. None of the above