201 - 300 Solved Medical Nursing MCQ Test Questions Bank

201. It has been detected that the Purkinjie system is damaged in a patient. The nurse recognises that the conduction of electrical impulses is most likely impaired through the
A. Atria
B. AV node
C. Bundle of His
D. Ventricles

202. A patient with a MI of the anterior wall of the left ventricle most likely has an occlusion of the
A. Left circumflex
B. Right marginal artery
C. Left anterior descending artery
D. Right anterior descending artery

203. During the first 24 hours of starvation, the order in which the body obtains substrate for energy is
A. Glycogen, skeletal protein
B. Visceral protein, fat stores, glycogen
C. Fat stores, skeletal protein, visceral protein
D. Liver protein, muscle protein, visceral protein

204. The most important aspect of hand washing is
A. Friction
B. Soap
C. Time
D. Water

205. It is necessary to explain to a patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease that this disorder
A. Will require surgical wrapping or repair of the pyloric sphincter to control the symptoms
B. Results in acid erosion and ulceration of the oesophagus through frequent vomiting
C. Is the protrusion of a portion of the stomach into the oesophagus through an opening in the diaphragm
D. Often involves relaxation of the lower oesophageal sphincter allowing stomach contents to back up into the oesophagus

206. A patient with hiatal hernia in your ward is taught to control the symptoms of the disorder by
A. Drinking a glass of milk at bed time to coat the oesophagus
B. Lie down after eating to promote relaxation of the GI tract
C. Avoid tight clotting and bending to decrease intra – abdominal pressure
D. Drink several glasses of liquids with meals to promote stomach emptying

207. An elderly man on admission is complaining of hyperplasia of the gums. Which of these drugs that he is taking is responsible for his complaints?
A. Aspirin
B. Digoxin
C. Lasix
D. Phenytoin

208. Dumping syndrome is normally associated with large
A. Hyperosmolar volumes emptying rapidly into the intestine
B. Isotonic volumes stimulating increased GI motility
C. Hypertonic volumes promoting third – spacing in the intestinal cavity
D. Hyposmolar volumes drawing fluid out of the plasma space and into the bowel

209. A basic nursing intervention for a patient with constipation is
A. Anticholinergic drugs and low fibre diet
B. Antiemetic and high fluid intake
C. Stool softeners and high fibre diet
D. Enemas and high fluid intake

210. A patient is admitted to the hospital with severe renal clinic caused by renal lithiasis. The nurse’s first priority in management of the patient is to
A. Administration of narcotics as prescribed
B. Obtain supplies for staining all urine
C. Encourage fluid intake of 3 to 4 litres per day
D. Keep the patient on NPO in preparation for surgery

211. A condition which is characterised by hyperuricaemia, as a result of errors of purine metabolism is
A. Osteoporosis
B. Gout
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Osteomalacia

212. Evaluation of the effectiveness of Nitroglycerine Sublingual is based on
A. A decrease in blood pressure
B. Dilatation of superficial blood vessel
C. Improved cardiac output
D. Relief of angina pain

213. Weak irregular pulse, confusion, poor muscle tone and irritability are common findings during assessments in the patient with
A. Sodium deficit
B. Calcium deficit
C. Potassium deficit
D. Fluid volume deficit

214. Ascites in congestive cardiac failure is due to
A. Failure of the kidneys to secrete urine
B. Increased intake of fluid
C. Increased venous pressure within the circulatory system
D. Lowered osmotic pressure of blood

215. If symptoms of warfarin overdose are observed in a patient with thrombophlebitis the nurse would expect the doctor to order
A. Heparin
B. Imferon
C. Protamine sulphate
D. Vitamin K

216. Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchangeable in the lungs by
A. Active transport
B. Diffusion
C. Filtration
D. Osmosis

217. The nurse should assess a patient with psoriasis for
A. Erythematous macules
B. Multiple petechiae
C. Pruritic lesions
D. Shiny scaly lesions

218. Which of the following flies spread onchocerciasis
A. Sand fly
B. Similium
C. Tsetsefly
D. Tumbufly

219. Pulmonary embolism may occur as a complication of
A. Aneurysm
B. Coronary artery thrombosis
C. Deep vein thrombosis
D. Pulmonary vein thrombosis

220. Which organ may be affected in a patient who is losing his balance?
A. Cerebellum
B. Cerebrum
C. Medulla oblongata
D. Pons varoli

221. Which of the following nurses may NOT be allowed to work with patients who have rubella?
A. Breast feeding nurses
B. Pregnant nurses
C. Psychiatric nurses
D. Students nurses

222. A doctor orders 50mg stat of Tabs Valium to reduce anxiety in a patient with myocardial infarction before giving the drug, the nurse should
A. Assess the apical pulse
B. Assess blood pressure
C. Clarify the order with the doctor
D. Encourage patient to verbalise feelings

223. An order for a medication to be given immediately is referred to as
A. Add lib
B. PRN
C. SOS
D. Stat

224. Which of the following is a life - -threatening sign of tetanus infection?
A. Muscular rigidity
B. Respiratory tract spasm
C. Restlessness and irritability
D. Spastic voluntary muscle contraction

225. Causes of haemolytic jaundice include
I. Acute infective hepatitis
II. Incompatible blood transfusion
III. Toxic chemicals and drugs
IV. Tumour of head of pancreas
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. II and III
D. II, III and IV

226. When administration digitalis preparations, the client should be evaluated for
A. Decreased pulse rate
B. Decreased respiration rate
C. Increased pulse rate
D. Increased respiratory rate

227. Oedema in congestive heart failure is due to
A. Lowered arterial pressure
B. Lowered venous pressure
C. Raised arterial pressure
D. Raised venous pressure

228. To perform any nursing care to a patient the nurse must first
A. Establish rapport with the patient’s doctor
B. Recognise personal feelings toward the patient
C. Talk with the patient’s family or significant others
D. Understand the patient’s emotional conflict

229. The primary aim of giving oxygen is to
A. Encourage deep breathing
B. Maintain tissue cell function
C. Relieve airway obstruction
D. Relieve apprehension and anxiety

230. The primary aim of nursing an unconscious patient is
A. Monitoring of consciousness level
B. Prevention of pressure sores
C. Provision of fluids and nutrients
D. Restoration of life

231. Agglutination is likely to occur if blood group
A. A is given to AB
B. AB is given to B
C. O is given A
D. O is given to B

232. An example of tertiary prevention activities by the nurse would be
A. Assisting in immunisation program
B. Correction of dietary deficiencies
C. Establishing goals for rehabilitation
D. Helping to send a sick person to the hospital

233. Which of the following is NOT is true about a patient with HIV or AIDS? The patient
A. May need dietary consultation to maintain adequate nutrition
B. May cope ineffectively because of poor prognosis
C. Needs information about the diseases transmission and safe sex
D. Should be encouraged not to keep pests

234. Which of the following are associated with skin rash?
I. Chicken pox
II. Plague
III. Rubella
IV. Typhoid
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. I, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV

235. The pain associated with coronary thrombosis is caused by
A. Arterial spasm
B. Blocking of the coronary veins
C. Irritation of nerve endings in the cardiac plexus
D. Ischemia of the heart veins

236. One of the complications of haemolytic streptococcal infection is
A. Cerebrospinal meningitis
B. Hepatitis
C. Rheumatic heart disease
D. Rheumatoid arthritis

237. One of the signs and symptoms a nurse should observe when a patient is receiving anticoagulant is
A. Chest pain
B. Epistaxis
C. Headache
D. Nausea

238. The most reliable test in the selection of an antibiotic is the
A. Culture of the specimen
B. Routine examination of the specimen
C. Sensitivity of the specimen
D. Susceptibility of the patient

239. The generic name for aspirin is
A. Acetylsalicylic acid
B. Salicylic acid
C. Sal soda
D. Sodium salicylic acid

240. In celiac disease there may be an allergic response to
A. Complex carbohydrates
B. Fats
C. Gluten in wheat
D. Simple carbohydrate

241. In planning a diet for a diabetic child, the nurse must
A. Allow for normal growth needs
B. Avoid using cassava
C. Discourage substitution in the menu pattern
D. Limit calories to encourage weight loss

242. A person exposed to hepatitis A is given gamma globulin to provide passive immunity to
A. Accelerate antigen – antibody union at the hepatic sites
B. Increase the production of short – lived antibodies
C. Provide antibodies that neutralise the antigen
D. Stimulate the lymphatic system to produce large number of antibodies

243. Risk factors associated with stroke in the elderly patient may include a history of
A. Continuous nervousness
B. Glaucoma
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Transient ischemia

244. When a doctor prescribes a hypnotics 6 hourly PRN for a patient
A. It should be given only once when necessary
B. The nurse should use her own judgement in giving it every 6 hours
C. The patient should be woken up when it is time to give the drug
D. The patient should be given the drug any time she complains of pains

245. Which of the following is NOT associated with secondary hypertension?
A. Acute glomerulonephritis
B. Adrenocortical hyperfunction
C. Aortic insufficiency
D. Stress or obesity

246. Which of the following is an important intervention of a patient with glomerulonephritis?
A. Encouraging fluids
B. Monitoring patient’s temperature daily
C. Monitoring patient’s weight daily
D. Teaching patient on personal hygiene

247. Complications of diabetes mellitus include
I. Decreased resistance to infections
II. Delayed wound healing
III. Peripheral numbness and pain
IV. Sodium retention
A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV

248. When assessing an individual with suspected atelectasis, the nurse would expect
A. A dry unproductive cough
B. A diminished breath sounds
C. Normal body temperature
D. Slow deep respirations

249. The following can cause meningitis EXCEPT
A. Mycobacteria
B. Protozoa
C. Streptococci
D. Viruses

250. The usual stimulant for the respiratory centre is
A. Calcium carbonate
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Nitrous oxide
D. Oxygen

251. A severe form of hyperthyroidism which is usually abrupt in onset and often fatal is known as
A. Exophthalmus
B. Throiditis
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Thyroid storm

252. A patient is taking a digitalis preparation regularly. The medication is ordinarily instilled and the physician is notified as soon as possible as the heart rate falls below
A. 80 beats per minute
B. 70 beats per minute
C. 60 beats per minute
D. 50 beats per minute

253. It has been observed that, under the age of 50 years, approximately twice as many men as women suffer from atherosclerosis in coronary vessels walls. It is generally believed that this difference is due to women having
A. Higher blood levels of oestrogen than men
B. Lifestyles with fewer stresses than men
C. Lifestyles with more activity and exercise than men
D. Diets that results in lower blood cholesterol levels than men

254. Which one of the following electrolytes helps to release contractile substances (actin and myosine) that are important for normal cardiac functioning?
A. Sodium
B. Calcium
C. Chloride
D. Potassium

255. Digoxin has been ordered for a patient with congestive heart failure because the drug helps to
A. Dilate coronary arteries
B. Strengthen the heart beat
C. Decrease arrhythmias in the heart
D. Decrease the electrical conductivity of the myocardium

256. Which one of the following findings, if noted in this patient during blood examination is most likely to increase the risk of developing digoxin toxicity?
A. Low sodium level
B. Low potassium level
C. High glucose level
D. High calcium level

257. Of the following signs, the one the nurse is most likely to notice first when the patient is developing digitalis toxicity is a
A. Heart murmur
B. Slow pulse rate
C. Slow respiratory rate
D. Drop in blood pressure

258. The physician has ordered morphine sulphate subcutaneously shortly after the admission of the patient with congestive heart failure. In this situation, the most likely reason for giving the medication is to reduce
A. Nausea
B. Anxiety
C. Blood pressure
D. Bronchial secretions

259. Most peptic ulcers occurring in the stomach are in the
A. Cardiac sphincter
B. Pyloric sphincter
C. Oesophageal sphincter
D. Body of the stomach

260. The pain in a patient with duodenal ulcer would be described probably as
A. An ache radiating to the left side
B. An intermittent colicky flank pain
C. A gnawing sensation relieved of food
D. A generalised abdominal pain intensified by moving

261. A nurse administering an N G tube feeding must do so slowly to reduce the hazard of
A. Distension
B. Flatulence
C. Indigestion
D. Regurgitation

262. In a patient suffering from cholelithiasis, the nurse should interpret his temperature elevation and white blood cell count as probably an indication of
A. Shock
B. Haemorrhage
C. Inflammation
D. Dehydration

263. Which of the following in a patient with liver cirrhosis can be directly related to increased pressure in the portal system?
I. Dyspepsia
II. Gynecomastia
III. Splenomegaly
IV. Purpura
V. Ascites
A. I and II
B. IV and V
C. I, III and V
D. All of the above

264. The nurse should know that the pathophysiology of a patient with cirrhosis of the liver predisposes him to
A. Splenic rupture
B. Umbilical hernia
C. Renal stones
D. Bladder stricture

265. As a consequence of ascites in a patient with cirrhosis of the liver, the patient would probably find which position most comfortable for sleep?
A. Supine
B. Side – lying
C. Semi – fowlers
D. Prone

266. Portal cirrhosis is characterised by
A. Catarrhal inflammation of sinusitis
B. Purulent infection of bile ducts
C. Fibrotic replacement of the liver cells
D. Ischemia degeneration of liver capsule

267. The portal hypertension in a patient with cirrhosis of the liver is the result of
A. Acceleration of portal blood floor secondary to severe anaemia
B. Compression of liver substance due to calcification of the liver capsule
C. Sustained contraction of vascular muscles in response to emotional stress
D. Twisting and constriction of intralobular and interlobular blood vessels

268. Spider angiomata are thought to be the result of
A. Increased in the systemic blood pressure
B. Failure of the liver to detoxify oestrogens
C. Interference with the normal healing process
D. Increase in permeability of capillaries

269. Which of the following findings in gastric analysis would best support a diagnosis of peptic ulcer
A. Absence of gastric secretions
B. Increased HCL
C. Lack of intrinsic factor
D. Decreased gastric motility

270. The tissue change most characteristic of peptic ulcer is
A. A ragged erosion of surface membrane with purulent exudate
B. A sharp excavation of surface membrane with clean base
C. A lumping mass of necrotic tissue with surface bleeding
D. An elevated ridge of fibrous tissue with wrinkled margins

271. Increased parasympathetic activity predisposes to peptic ulcer by effecting
I. Hypersecretion
II. Hypertrophy
III. Hypermotility
IV. Hyperplasia
V. Hypertonia
A. I and II only
B. III and IV only
C. I, III and V only
D. All of the above

272. Which of the following emotional factors is thought to contribute to the production of a peptic ulcer?
A. Threat of separation from the mother figure
B. Anxiety relating to identification of the sexual role
C. Strong unconscious passive – dependent oral needs
D. Chronic inhibition of strong hostile – aggressive drives

273. Hypochromic anaemia is characterised by red blood cells that differ from normal cells in being
A. Grossly irregular in shape
B. Less filled with haemoglobin
C. Larger in total volume
D. Without nuclear chromatin

274. In a patient undergoing gastric lavage, when the lavage tube is being inserted, the nurse must place the patient in the
A. Supine position
B. Mid – fowlers position
C. High – fowlers position
D. Trendelenburg’s position

275. The maximum height of which the container of fluid should be held when administering a cleansing enema is
A. 30cm
B. 37cm
C. 45cm
D. 66cm

276. Continuous gastrointestinal decompressions is particularly apt to produce
A. Haemorrhage
B. Constipation
C. Hiccoughs
D. Alkalosis

277. Milk is omitted from a clear liquid diet because it
A. Produces gas
B. Contains calories
C. Produce nausea
D. Coats the mucosa

278. Which of the following are possible complications of duodenal ulcer
I. Acute haemorrhage
II. Macrocytic anaemia
III. Pyloric obstruction
IV. Gallstones
V. Bowel perforation
A. I and II
B. I, III and V
C. All but V
D. All the above

279. Which of the following is the most accurate definition of bronchiectasis?
A. Encapsulated collection of pus in the lungs
B. Fibrotic obliteration of the terminal bronchi
C. Sac – like or tubular dilatation of the bronchi
D. Traumatic rupture of the bronchiolar wall

280. The pale, boggy nasal mucosa of a patient with bronchiectasis is indicative of
A. Virus infection
B. Heart failure
C. Chronic anaemia
D. Allergic rhinitis

281. An increased anterior – posterior diameter of the chest of a patient with bronchiectasis is suggestive of
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Heart failure
C. Emphysema
D. Mediastinitis

282. A client diagnosed as having bronchiectasis and having anorexia; his anorexia can be predominantly result from
A. Disinclination for physical exercise
B. Frequent expectation of foul sputum
C. Decreased basal metabolic rate
D. Increased vertical diameter of the thorax

283. The position for a client with dyspnoea is
A. Sims
B. Supine
C. Orthopnoea
D. Trendelenburg

284. If the nurse explains to a client undergoing respiratory pulmonary function test that during the procedure, he/she should breathe normally then the nurse is helping the therapist to measure
A. Tidal volume
B. Vital capacity
C. Expiratory reserve
D. Inspiratory reserve

285. A client is admitted with pneumothorax and therefore during assessment, the nurse should expect dyspnoea and
A. Hematemesis
B. Unilateraol chest pain
C. Increased chest motion
D. Mediastenal shift toward the involved side

286. Thoracentesis is to empyema as which of the following is to bronchiectasis?
A. Lobectomy
B. Postural drainage
C. Aerosol penicillin
D. Breathing exercise

287. Which of the following solution is usually placed in the drainage collection bottle in preparing the water – sealed drainage apparatus?
A. Sterile water
B. Ammonium carbonate
C. Hexachlorophene
D. Normal saline

288. Acromegaly is produced by oversecretion of
A. Testosterone
B. Growth hormone
C. Thyroid hormone
D. Adrenocorticotropin

289. The nurse understands that the cause of Cushing’s Syndrome is most commonly
A. Pituitary hypoplasia
B. Insufficient ACTH production
C. Hyperplasia of the adrenal cortex
D. Deprivation of adrenocortical hormone

290. Glucocorticoids and Mineralocorticoids are secreted by the
A. Gonads
B. Pancreas
C. Adrenal gland
D. Anterior pituitary gland

291. In Cushing’s syndrome, excessive amounts of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids will increase the client’s
A. Urine output
B. Glucose levels
C. Serum potassium
D. Immune response

292. Thyroid crisis (storm) is caused by
A. Increased iodine in the blood
B. Removal of the parathyroid gland
C. High levels of the hormone triiodothyronine
D. A rebound increase in metabolism following anaesthesia

293. Which of the following minerals is lost in prolonged diuretic therapy?
A. Sodium
B. Calcium
C. Potassium
D. Phosphorus

294. In patients with diabetes insipidus, the specific gravity of urine is
A. High
B. Low
C. Moderate
D. Normal

295. A clinical syndrome in which there are attacks of headache frequently accompanied by visual and gastrointestinal symptoms is referred to as
A. Sinusitis
B. Heart attack
C. Migraine
D. Otitis media

296. Which of the following is not part of the clinical phases of acute renal failure?
A. Oliguria
B. Diuresis
C. Intermittent phase
D. Period of recovery

297. A renal stone in the pelvis of the kidneys will alter the function of the kidney by interfering with
A. The structural support of the kidneys
B. Regulation of the concentration of urine
C. The entry and exit of blood vessels at the kidney
D. Collection and drainage of urine from the kidney

298. The nurse identifies a risk factor for urinary calculi in a patient who relates a past health history that includes
A. Measles
B. Gastric ulcer
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Hyperparathyroidism

299. Normal changes associated with aging of the urinary system that the nurse expects to find include
A. Decrease levels of B U N
B. Post voiding urine residual
C. Increased bladder capacity
D. More easily palpable kidneys

300. A patient with renal disease has oliguria and a creatinine clearance of 40ml/min. The nurse identifies that these findings most directly reflect abnormal function of
A. Tubular secretion
B. Capillary permeability
C. Glomerular filtration
D. Concentration of filtrate