101 - 200 Solved Medical Nursing MCQ Test Questions Bank

101. The vitamin needed by the liver for the synthesis of prothrombin and some other clotting factors is
A. A
B. D
C. E
D. K

102. Before a tuberculosis patient is declared non – infective, the nurse must ensure that
A. No acid fast bacteria are in the sputum
B. The patient no longer has the disease
C. The patient’s temperature is normal
D. The tuberculin skin test is negative

103. The risk of osteoporosis is increased when an individual
A. Engages in strenuous physical activities
B. Has a history of hypoparathyroidism
C. Receives long – term steroid therapy
D. Takes excessive amounts of oestrogen

104. When teaching a patient with a cardiac problem on reduction of saturated fats in the diet, she should be instructed to avoid
A. Corn oil
B. Fish
C. Soft margarine
D. Whole milk

105. When emphysema is present, there is decrease oxygen supply because of
A. Infectious obstructions
B. Loss of aerating surface
C. Pleural effusion
D. Respiratory muscle paralysis

106. The use of amino – acids from protein for gluconeogenesis results in the formation of.... as by product.
A. Ammonia
B. Fatty acids
C. Ketone bodies
D. Lipoproteins

107. Hydrocortisone is injected into the knee joint of a patient with rheumatoid arthritis in order to
A. Prevent ankylosis of the joint
B. Provide physiotherapy
C. Reduce inflammation
D. Relieve pain

108. A patient’s laboratory report shows acid – fast rods in his sputum. These rods are presumed to be
A. Bordetella pertussis
B. Diphtheria bacillus
C. Influenza virus
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

109. Dietary modification regimen allowed for patients with ascites and hepatic dysfunction is
A. High carbohydrate, low sodium
B. High protein, low carbohydrate
C. High sodium, low protein
D. High sodium, high carbohydrate

110. Symptoms of portal hypertension are chiefly the results of
A. Fatty degeneration of kupffer cells
B. Infection of the liver parenchyma
C. Obstruction of the cystic and hepatic ducts
D. Obstruction of the portal circulation

111. One cause of spontaneous pneumothorax in a patient with emphysema is a
A. Pleural friction rub
B. Puncture wound of the chest wall
C. Rupture of subpleura bleb
D. Tracheooesophageal fistula

112. The nurse encourages the patient to void before paracenthesis abdominis to
A. Encourage patient to sit upright
B. Maintain the sterility of the procedure
C. Minimise bleeding at the puncture site
D. Minimise the risk of bladder puncture

113. To help a patient obtain a maximum benefit after postural drainage, the nurse should
A. Administer the oxygen PRN
B. Encouraged the patient to cough deeply
C. Encourage the patient to rest for 30 minutes
D. Place the patient in a sitting position

114. Normal renal function is necessary for the maintenance of
A. Bicarbonate
B. Calcium
C. Potassium
D. Sodium

115. When caring for a patient with Hepatitis A, the nurse should take special precaution to
A. Prevent droplets spread of the infection
B. Use caution when bringing food to the patient
C. Use gloves when removing the patient’s bedpan
D. Wear mask and gown before entering his room

116. One of the commonest complications of chronic asthma is
A. Atelectasis
B. Emphysema
C. Pneumothorax
D. Pulmonary fibrosis

117. Paracenthesis is the removal of fluid (ascites) from the
A. Abdominal cavity
B. Pleural cavity
C. Peritoneal cavity
D. Peritoneum

118. Which of the following is not undertaken to assess fluid status?
A. Abdominal girth
B. Daily weight check
C. Elevation of lower extremities
D. Intake and output

119. The nurse should expect a patient with bradycardia to have a
A. Grossly irregular heart beat
B. Heartbeat that has regular skipped beats
C. Heart rate of over 90 per minute
D. Heart rate of under 60 per minute

120. Oesophageal varices are dilated tortuous veins usually found in the sub mucosa of the
A. Lower oesophagus
B. Mid oesophagus
C. Upper oesophagus
D. Whole of oesophagus

121. Koilonychia is a condition of the nails which occurs in
A. Blood calcium depletion
B. Chronic bronchial asthma
C. Iron deficiency anaemia
D. Osteomyelitis

122. Factors that contribute to haemorrhage in oesophageal varies are the following muscular strain from
I. Carrying heavy objects
II. Coughing
III. Lifting heavy objects
IV. Sneezing
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. I, II and IV
D. II, III and IV

123. A patient is to receive 3000mls of IV fluid in 12 hours. The drop factor is 10 gtt/ml. The nurse should regulate the flow to approximately how many drops per minute?
A. 27 to 29
B. 30 to 32
C. 40 to 42
D. 48 to 50

124. A hormone that regulates reabsorption of calcium and phosphorus is
A. Aldosterone
B. Parathormone
C. Somatostatin
D. Thyroxin

125. A hormone that plays an important role in maintaining a normal fluid balances is
A. Calcium
B. Parathormone
C. Thyroxin
D. Vasopressin

126. The most practical and efficient way to identify losses in renal function is by means of
A. Clearance test
B. Culture and sensitivity test
C. Glucose tolerance test
D. Routine test

127. Pleuritic pain from irritation of the parietal pleura is best described as
A. Catchy
B. Cutting
C. Pinching
D. Sharp

128. To prevent pulmonary embolism in a patient managed on bed rest, the nurse should
A. Encourage deep breathing and coughing
B. Limit the patient’s fluid intake
C. Teach the patient to move legs when in bed
D. Teach patient to turn in bed from left to right 10 times daily

129. Wheezing is high – pitched musical sound heard mainly on
A. Coughing
B. Expiration
C. Inspiration
D. Whistling

130. Cyanosis appears when there is at least....of unoxygenated blood
A. 5g/dL
B. 8g/dL
C. 10g/dL
D. 15g/dL

131. Patients with severe hepatitis should eat foods containing very little or no protein. This is to prevent
A. Hepatic cirrhosis
B. Hepatic coma
C. Portal hypertension
D. Stone formation in the common bile duct

132. The bluish colouring of the skin in respiratory condition is known as
A. Clubbing
B. Cyanosis
C. Dyspnoea
D. Haemoptysis

133. A patient with ascites is scheduled for paracenthesis abdominis. Before the procedure, the nurse instruct the patient to
A. Assume the supine position
B. Eat foods low in fats
C. Empty bladder
D. Remain nil per os for 24 hours

134. A patient is diagnosed of mal absorption syndrome. Patient’s condition should improve drastically after the administration of
A. A gluten – free diet
B. Corticotrophin preparations
C. Folic acid
D. Vitamin B12

135. A negative HIV test means that one
I. Does not have the antibodies in his blood
II. Has not been infected with the virus
III. Has been infected with virus but has not yet produced antibodies
IV. Is immune to the virus
A. I, II and III
B. I, III and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV

136. In acute pharyngitis, a sudden inflammation of the pharynx is more common in patients aged
A. 1 – 4 years
B. 5 – 15 years
C. 25 – 30 years
D. 35 – 40 years

137. Black water fever is characterised by
A. Coffee ground vomiting
B. Dark red urine
C. Diarrhoea
D. Low grade fever

138. The following are characteristic of nephritic syndrome EXCEPT
A. Ascites
B. Hyperalbuminaemia
C. Hypoalbuminaemia
D. Proteinuria

139. One mechanism of action of antiretroviral drugs is
A. Increasing the lifespan of the red blood cells
B. Killing the HIV
C. Neutralising the toxins produced by the HIV
D. Preventing the production of HIV

140. Bruit is a vascular sound that resembles
A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Atrial regurgitation
C. Heart murmur
D. Stridor

141. Acromegaly is produced by an over secretion of
A. Adrenocorticotrophin
B. Growth hormone
C. Testosterone
D. Thyroid hormone

142. What blood type is considered the universal donor?
A. A negative
B. B negative
C. AB negative
D. O negative

143. Antiretroviral therapy is recommended for positive HIV patients
A. Who are manifesting signs and symptoms of AIDS
B. Who have development opportunistic infections
C. Whose CD4 counts are below 500
D. Whose helper T – cells lymphocytes count are above 800.

144. What blood type is considered the universal recipient?
A. A positive
B. B positive
C. AB positive
D. O positive

145. Oral hypoglycaemic agents may be used for patients with
A. Ketosis
B. Obesity
C. Type 1 diabetes
D. Type 2 diabetes

146. What urine pH level is considered normal?
A. 4 to 8
B. 4.5 to 8
C. 4 to 7
D. 4.5 to 7

147. A severe incapacitating chest pain is referred to as
A. Intractable or refractory angina
B. Stable angina
C. Unstable angina
D. Variant angina

148. Diabetic coma results from an excess accumulation in the blood of
A. Glucose from rapid carbohydrate metabolism
B. Ketones from rapid fat metabolism causing acidosis
C. Nitrogen from protein catabolism causing ammonia intoxication
D. Sodium bicarbonate causing alkalosis

149. One of the complications of malaria is
A. Bronchopneumonia
B. Conjunctivitis
C. Fever
D. Splenomegaly

150. Clinical manifestation of pulmonary congestion include all the following EXCEPT
A. Cough
B. Dyspnoea
C. Nausea
D. Pulmonary crackles

151. Clinical features of pulmonary empyema include
I. Chronic cough
II. Increasing shortness of breath
III. Production of copious purulent sputum
IV. Wheezing respirations
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV

152. In right – sided heart failure, patients present with the following EXCEPT
A. Anorexia
B. Ascites
C. Dependent oedema
D. Dyspnoea

153. In acute heart failure, upright position with the leg dangling over the side of the bed effects the following EXCEPT
A. Decreases venous return
B. Decreases lung congestion
C. Lowers output of the right ventricle
D. Reduces arterial blood pressure

154. Clinical manifestations in Reynaud’s disease includes the following EXCEPT
A. Coldness
B. Pain
C. Pallor of fingertips or toes
D. Ulceration and gangrene

155. The most common cause of diabetic ketoacidosis is
A. Emotional stress
B. Inadequate food intake
C. Increased insulin dose
D. Presence of infection

156. Which of the following electrolytes would be depleted in a patient on furosemide (Lasix)?
A. Calcium
B. Phosphate
C. Potassium
D. Sodium

157. The factor that determines the needles diameter when preparing an injection is the
A. Efficiency of the medicine
B. Potency of the medicine
C. Patency of the needle
D. Viscosity

158. Before giving a client digoxin, the nurse should obtain the
A. Apical heart rate
B. Difference between the apical and radial pulses
C. Radial pulse in both arms
D. Radial pulse on the left side of the heart

159. A diabetic patient on admission has developed insulin coma. The signs that the nurse is expected to observe include
A. Anorexia, glycosuria
B. Excessive thirst, dry hot skin
C. Fruity odour of breath, acetonuria
D. Pallor, sweating, tremors

160. In giving Aminophyline intravenously to relieve severe asthma, the nurse should observe for
A. Decreased pulse rate
B. Decreased urinary output
C. Hypotension
D. Visual disturbances

161. Oedema in congestive cardiac failure is caused by
A. Decreased plasma protein
B. Decreased venous pressure
C. Increased plasma protein
D. Increased venous pressure

162. Intravenous solution of 0.45% sodium with respect to human blood cells is
A. Hypotonic
B. Hypertonic
C. Isotonic
D. Isomeric

163. Ascites can be related to
A. Decreased production of potassium
B. Diminished plasma protein
C. Kidney malfunction
D. Portal hypotension

164. The main difference in manifestations of malaria and yellow fever is that in yellow fever the patient has
A. Albuminuria
B. Pain in the limbs
C. Rigor
D. Vomiting

165. A client with pyrexia would demonstrate
A. Dyspnoea
B. Elevated blood pressure
C. Increased pulse rate
D. Precordial pain

166. In taking the apical pulse, the nurse places the stethoscope
A. Between the sixth and the seventh ribs at the left medaxillary line
B. Between the third and fourth ribs and to the left of the sternum
C. In the fifth intercostals space along the left midclavicular line
D. Just to the left of the median point of the sternum

167. Antibodies are produced by
A. Eisubioguds
B. Erythrocytes
C. Lymphocytes
D. Plasma cells

168. A client develops chills and headache during blood transfusion, the nurse’ best action is to
A. Lightly cover the client
B. Notify the physician
C. Stop the transfusion immediately
D. Slow the blood flow to keep the vein open

169. The most important electrolyte in the extracellular fluid is
A. Calcium
B. Chloride
C. Potassium
D. Sodium

170. Catheterisation is not used routinely in collecting urine for culture because
A. The client feels uncomfortable
B. The doctor has to pass the catheter
C. The danger of causing trauma to the urethra
D. The risk of introducing additional bacterial into the bladder

171. A patient who smokes tells the nurse that she wants to quit smoking. The best response by the nurse is to tell the patient that
A. If she is really committed to stopping, that is all that is needed to quit
B. To overcome the nicotine addiction, it is always necessary to join a group of support program
C. Setting a date to stop and then quitting is the most difficult but is associated with fewer relapses
D. The use of nicotine replacement aids with behavioural interventions is the most successful method of stopping

172. The immediate nursing interventions To relieve the symptoms of hypoglycaemia include
A. Administering 5% dextrose solution IV
B. Giving 100mls of fruit juice
C. Providing a snack of pie and dry crackers
D. Withholding a subsequent dose of insulin

173. A nursing measure that should be instituted after a pneumonectomy includes
A. Monitoring chest – tube drainage and functioning
B. Positioning the patient on the unaffected side or back
C. Range – of – motion exercises on the affected upper extremity
D. Auscultating frequently for lung sounds on the affected side

174. In responding to a patient with emphysema who asks about the possibility of a lung transplant, the nurse knows that lung transplantation is contraindicated in patients
A. With cor pulmonale
B. Who currently smoke
C. With end stage renal failure
D. Older than 50 years of age

175. The body fluids that make up 40% or more of the total body weight are
A. Extracellular
B. Intestinal
C. Intracellular
D. Intravascular

176. A plan of care for the patient with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) would include
A. Chronic corticosteroid therapy
B. Reduction of risk factors for infection
C. High flow rate of oxygen administration
D. Lung exercises that involves inhaling longer than exhaling

177. One important thing a nurse can teach a patient with emphysema is to
A. Move to a hot, dry climate
B. Perform chest physical therapy
C. Know the early signs of respiratory infection
D. Obtain adequate rest in the supine position

178. The major advantage of a venturi mask is that it can
A. Deliver up to 80% O2
B. Provide continuous 100% humidity
C. Deliver a precise concentration of O2¬
D. Be used while a patient eats and sleeps

179. In evaluating the knowledge of an asthmatic patient about self – care, the nurse identifies additional information needed when the patient says
A. I use my corticosteroid inhaler when I feel short of breath
B. I get a flu shot every year and see my doctor if I have an upper respiratory infection
C. I use my bronchodilator inhaler before I visit my aunt who has a cat, but I only visit for a few minutes because of my allergies
D. I walk 30 minutes every day but sometimes I have to use my bronchodilator inhaler before walking to prevent me from getting short of breath

180. Which of the following is a clinical feature of marasmus?
A. Constantly crying for food
B. Flaky point dermatosis
C. Moon – shaped face due to oedema
D. Reddish brown hair

181. Symptoms of hyperthyroidism include
A. Increased appetite, slow pulse, dry skin
B. Loss of weight, constipation, restlessness
C. Nervousness, weight loss, increased appetite
D. Protruding eyeballs, slow pulse, sluggishness

182. An individual who lives at a high altitude may normally have an increased Red Blood Cell because
A. High altitudes cause vascular fluid loss leading to haemoconcentration
B. Hypoxia caused by decreased atmospheric oxygen stimulates erythropoiesis
C. The function of the spleen in removing old erythrocytes is impaired at high altitudes
D. Impaired production of leucocytes and platelets leads to proportionally higher red blood cell count

183. Disorders such as myeloblastic leukaemia that arise from myeloblast cells in the bone marrow will have the primary effect of causing
A. Increased incidence of cancer
B. Decreased production of antibodies
C. Decreased phagocytosis of bacteria
D. Increased allergic and inflammatory reaction

184. An anticoagulant such as Warfarin that interferes with the production of prothrombin will alter the clotting mechanism during
A. Platelet aggregation
B. Activation of thrombin
C. The release of tissue thromboplastin
D. Stimulation of factor activation complex

185. In a surgery of an anaemic patient, the nurse would expect to find
A. Dyspnoea and tachycardia
B. Cyanosis and pulmonary oedema
C. Cardiomegaly and pulmonary fibrosis
D. Ventricular arrhythmias and wheezing

186. Significant information obtained from the patient health history that relates to the haematologic system includes
A. Jaundice
B. Bladder surgery
C. Early menopause
D. Multiple pregnancies

187. The nurse will advise a patient with a diagnosis of nephritic syndrome to take food high in
A. Carbohydrates
B. Fats
C. Protein
D. Sodium

188. The primary goal for the patient with Bonchieostasis is that the patient will
A. Have no recurrence of disease
B. Have normal pulmonary function
C. Maintain removal of bronchial secretions
D. Avoid environmental agents that precipitate inflammation

189. A nurse identifies a flail chest in a trauma patient when
A. Multiple rib fractures are determine by X ray
B. Paradoxical chest movements occurs during respiration
C. There is decreased movement of the involved chest wall
D. A tracheal deviation to the unaffected side is present

190. The nurse notes fluctuation of the water level in the tube submerged in the water – seal chamber in a patient with closed chest tube drainage. The nurse should
A. Continue to monitor this normal findings
B. Check all connections for a leak in the system
C. Lower the drainage collector further from the chest
D. Clamp the tubing at progressively distal points away from the patient until the fluctuations

191. Complications of hyperparathyroidism include
A. Bone destruction
B. Graves’ disease
C. Seizures
D. Tetany

192. Gullian Barrre Syndrome causes respiratory problems primarily by
A. Depressing thee C N S
B. Deforming chest wall muscles
C. Paralysing the diaphragm secondary to trauma
D. Interrupting nerve transmission to respiratory muscle

193. A diagnosis of pediculosis corporis is made in a pupil at a health centre. An appropriate measure in treating this condition is
A. Topical application of griseofulvin
B. Washing the body with pyrethrins
C. Administration of systemic antibiotics
D. Moist compresses applied frequently

194. When creating a therapeutic environment for a patient recovering from myocardial infarction, the nurse should provide for
A. Daily newspapers in the morning
B. Short family visits
C. Telephone communication
D. Television for short periods

195. A patient with COPD asks why the heart is affected by respiratory disease. The nurse’s response to the patient is based on the knowledge that cor pulmonale is characterised by
A. Pulmonary congestion secondary to left ventricular failure
B. Right ventricular hypertrophy secondary to increase pulmonary vascular resistance
C. Excess serous fluid collection in the alveoli caused by retained respiratory secretions
D. Right ventricular failure secondary to compression of the heart by hyperventilated lungs

196. Asthma is best characterised as
A. An inflammatory disease
B. A steady progression of bronchoconstriction
C. A obstructive disease with loss of alveolar walls
D. A chronic obstructive disorder characterised by mucus production

197. The effects of cigarette smoking on the respiratory system includes
A. Increased proliferation of ciliated cells
B. Hypertrophy of the alveolar membrane
C. Destruction of all alveolar macrophages
D. Hyperplasia of globet cells and increased production of mucus

198. Mr Amamudu has been admitted to your ward with severe neutropenia. Which of the following nursing actions would be considered appropriate in his care
A. Perirectal care and platelet administration
B. Oral care and red blood cell administration
C. Monitoring lung sounds and invasive blood pressures
D. Strict hand washing and frequent temperature assessment

199. A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaired blood flow between the
A. Vena cava and right atrium
B. Left atrium and left ventricle
C. Right atrium and right ventricle
D. Right ventricle and pulmonary artery

200. A patient with status epilepticus is given Valium to
A. Dilate the tracheobronchitis structure
B. Induce sleep
C. Relax peripheral muscles
D. Slow down cardiac contraction