1 - 100 Solved Medical Nursing MCQ Test Questions Bank

1. For a patient with pulmonary edema, the nurse must reduce cardiac overload by:
A. Elevating the legs when in bed.
B. Putting the patient in supine position
C. Serving a seasoned beef to him
D. Using bedside commode for stools

2. A client is experiencing respiratory distress but unchanged blood pressure.
The immediate nursing action is:
A. suction of the patient vigorously
B. put the patient in high-Fowler’s position
C. give all the prescribed medications
D. call the respiratory therapy department for an assistance

3. Interstitial and intravascular fluids compartments are separated by:
A. Protein pumps
B. capillary wall
C. ionic gates
D. fatty substances

4. Which of the following is an initial sign of hyperkalaemia?
A. pancytopenia anaemia
B. haemorrhagic anaemia
C. Addison’s pernicious anemia
D. Aplastic anaemia

5. Extra-cellular fluids are found in the following compartments except:
A. blood vessels
B. interstitial space
C. spinal cord
D. cytoplasm

6. Which of the following occurs in cardiogenic shock?
A. flushed, dry skin with bounding pedal pulses
B. warm, moist skin with irregular pedal pulses
C. cool, dry skin with alternating weak and strong pedal pulses
D. cool, clammy skin with weak or thready pedal pulses

7. A client complains of intermittent episodes in which the fingers of both hands become pale, cold and numb.
They become reddened and swollen with throbbing pain.
The client is suffering from:
A. Hodgkin’s disease
B. Parkinson’s disease
C. Raynauld’s disease
D. Steven-Johnson’s syndrome

8. Vitamins are needed ………………. to sustain growth and health
A. periodically in smaller quantities
B. daily in smaller quantities
C. annually in greater quantities
D. periodically in greater quantities

9. Which of the following often causes haemorrhagic anaemia?
A. physical injury to either external or internal structures with severe blood loss
B. decreased absorption of nutrients in the gastro-interstinal tract
C. endocrine changes in the body
D. lack of micro-nutrients in the diet

10. In pericarditis, which of the following clinical features differentiates it from other cardiopulmonary disease?
A. chest pain that worsens on inspiration
B. pericardial friction rub
C. anterior chest pain
D. weakness and irritability

11. Which of the following foods can worsen the pain of a client suffering from Raynaud’s disease?
A. ingestion of coffee or chocolate
B. ingestion of an offal
C. ingestion of cereals and pulses
D. ingestion of fruits and vegetables

12. Potassium excess can result in:
A. tongue fissure
B. muscle cramps
C. sunken eyes
D. increased sweating

13. In haemorrhagic anaemia, injection…………is given to client to allay anxiety.
A. pethidine
B. coumadin
C. heparin
D. morphine

14. The by products of all foods oxidized in the body are;
A. amino acids, oxygen and glycerol
B. fatty acids, glycerol and carbon dioxide
C. glucose, amino acids and water
D. carbon dioxide, energy and water

15. The priority nursing diagnosis of the acute phase of myocardial infarction is:
A. alteration in comfort (pain)
B. anxiety
C. ineffective coping
D. impaired tissue integrity

16. An agent of a disease is referred to:
A. the affected person
B. the causative organism
C. the method of spread of the disease
D. the environmental condition

17. The major function of sodium in the body is to:
A. promote wound healing
B. to form ATP
C. balance body fluid
D. process extracellular fluid

18. In preparation of home-made oral rehydration salt, the following are needed except:
A. 8 heaped teaspoonfuls of sugar
B. 1 level teaspoonful of salt
C. 1000mls of wholesome water
D. a clean container and its cover

19. The predominant cation in the intracellular compartment is:
A. chloride
B. calcium
C. magnesium
D. potassium

20. A positively charged ion in the body is called:
A. cation
B. anion
C. buffer
D. hydrolysis

21. A negatively charged ion in the body is called:
A. hydrolysis
B. buffer
C. anion
D. cation

22. Which of the following vitamins cannot be found from a plant source?
A. vitamin A
B. vitamin B12
C. vitamin E
D. vitamin B1

23. A client suffering from coronary artery disease should be encouraged to take:
A. rice and grilled chicken
B. fruits, vegetables and baked fish
C. grilled pork, fatty mutton with buttered rice
D. eggs, buttered rice with fried chicken

24. A client with angina pectoris complains of chest pain while getting out of bed.
The nurse must first:
A. get an order for pain medication
B. report the complaint to the physician
C. advise the client to continue to get out of bed
D. stop the client and encourage him to lie down in bed

25. A client was brought to an emergency department with angina pectoris, the priority of the nursing care is to:
A. assemble oxygen apparatus at the bedside
B. put in place a bed table
C. make ECG machine ready
D. put the client on a low bed

26. Which of the following common signs or symptoms indicate that the patient is suffering from myocardial infarction?
A. the client experiencing nausea and vomiting
B. the client complains of pain while walking
C. client’s pain is not relieved by rest and nitroglycerin
D. client’s pain is described as sub-sternal and radiates to the left arm

27. Dermatitis, diarrhea, and dermatitis are characteristic of....
A. pellagra
B. rickets
C. osteomyelitis
D. mumps

28. Guinea worm disease is described as....
A. air borne only
B. vector borne
C. food borne
D. air and vector borne

29. Laboratory criteria for diagnosis of rabies is....
A. leukocyte antigen
B. immunofluorescent assay
C. direct fluorescent antibody test
D. immunofluorescence skin test

30. Which of the following does not exacerbate the condition of a patient suffering from heart failure?
A. recent upper respiratory infection
B. nutritional anaemia
C. peptic ulcer disease
D. atrial fibrillation

31. A nurse reviews the physician’s prescription for a client with heart failure.
The nurse expects to note which of the following?
A. Cardizem
B. Digoxin
C. Propranolol
D. Metronidazole

32. A client diagnosed of thrombophlebitis 24 hours ago suddenly complains of chest pain, shortness of breath and visible anxiousness.
The nurse must check the client for other signs and symptoms of ……………..
A. myocardial infarction
B. pneumonia
C. pulmonary embolism
D. pulmonary oedema

33. A client is seeking treatment for varicosity, and sclerotherapy is recommended.
What is sclerotherapy?
A. surgical removal of the varicosity
B. tying off veins
C. oral intake of anticoagulant
D. injecting an agent into a vein to damage the vein wall and close the vein off

34. A client complaining of claudication in the arch of the left foot is likely to suffer from ....
A. Raynaud’s disease
B. Buerger’s disease
C. Parkinson’s disease
D. Paget’s disease

35. In mumps, there is self-limited swelling of the ....
A. adrenalins
B. pyloric sphincter
C. parotid gland
D. thymus gland

36. The nurse is preparing to instill an otic solution in an adult client’s ear.
The nurse should avoid which of the following in the procedure?
A. pulling the auricle backward and upward
B. touching the tip of the dropper to the edge of the canal
C. warming the solution to room temperature
D. placing the client in the sitting-up position

37. In acute urethritis, the commonest symptom is....
A. pelvic pain
B. urethral discharge
C. increased temperature
D. dysuria

38. In nursing, which of the following treatments will be of priority in the treatment of otitis media?
A. bed rest
B. mastoidectomy
C. dyphenhydramine
D. myringotomy

39. In the nursing care of a client with Meniere’s disease the nurse must teach the client ....
A. about current drugs
B. to avoid tobacco
C. about safety measures
D. about self-care measures

40. Which of the following findings does the nurse expect to note if a client is suffering from mastoiditis?
A. swelling behind the ear
B. a clear tympanic membrane
C. a mobile tympanic membrane
D. a transparent tympanic membrane

41. Physiological mechanisms of adaptation work together through complex relationships in the....
A. respiratory and nervous systems
B. nervous and endocrine systems
C. digestive and nervous systems
D. digestive and endocrine systems

42. Which of the following otoscopic findings indicates perforated eardrum?
A. a colony of black dots in the ear drum
B. dense white patches on the ear drum
C. a red, bulging eardrum
D. a round darkened area on the eardrum

43. A client diagnosed of Maniere’s disease should avoid ....
A. cereal products
B. salty foods
C. citrus foods
D. green vegetables

44. To facilitate communication with an 80 year old client diagnosed of presbycusis, the nurse should
A. lower the voice pitch and face the client when speaking
B. use sign language
C. speak loudly
D. put the mouth closely to one ear when speaking

45. There are two types of particles involved in airborne transmission of diseases. They are dust and ...
A. water
B. saliva
C. air
D. droplet nuclei

46. A nurse who is caring for a client that has a hearing impaired will adopt which of the following approaches?
A. speak frequently
B. speak loudly
C. speak directly into the unaffected ear
D. speak in a normal tone

47. A client arrives at the emergency unit with a foreign body in the left ear that has been found to be an insect?
A. irrigate the ear
B. instill diluted alcohol
C. instill antibiotic ear drop
D. instill corticorsteroid ointment

48. A nurse understands that presbycusis is accurately described as ....
A. A sensori-neural loss that occurs with aging
B. a conductive hearing loss that occurs with aging
C. Tinnitus that occurs with aging
D. Nystagmus that occurs with aging

49. The best drug to prescribe for a client with Maniere’s disease is ....
A. Low cholesterol diet
B. Low sodium diet
C. Low carbohydrate diet
D. Low fat diet

50. Cranial nerve I is also called ....
A. Olfactory nerve
B. Oculomotor nerve
C. Trochlear nerve
D. Facial nerve

51. A serious complication of malaria is
A. Anaemia and haemorrhage
B. Black water fever
C. Congested lung
D. Impaired peristalsis

52. Which of the following are the common types of chronic pain?
I.Pain with obvious on – going peripheral pathology
II.Chronic benign pain that may have peripheral or central pathology
III.Pain that subsides and gradually disappears
IV.Recurrent acute pain
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV

53. To reduce the symptoms of sprue, the patient should be advised to avoid
A. Broad beans
B. Maize
C. Soya beans
D. Wheat

54. A patient on Lasix and Digoxin should be observed for symptoms of electrolytes depletion caused by
A. Continuous dyspepsia
B. Diuretic therapy
C. Inadequate oral intake
D. Sodium restriction

55. An important nursing responsibility after intravenous pyelogram is to
A. Assess the patient for flank pain
B. Encourage extra oral fluid intake
C. Observe urine for remaining contrast material
D. Encourage ambulation 2 to 3 hours after the study

56. The nurse encourages strict diabetic control in the patient prone to diabetic nephropathy knowing that the renal tissue changes that may occur in this condition include
A. Uric acid calculi and nephrolithiasis
B. Renal sugar – crystal calculi and cyst
C. Lipid deposits in the glomeruli and nephrons
D. Thickening of the glomerular basement membrane and glomerulosclerosis.

57. Clinical features of hypokalaemia include
A. Apathy, weakness, abdominal distension
B. Oedema, bounding pulse, confusion
C. Spasms, diarrhoea, irregular pulse rate
D. Sunken eyeballs, Kussmauls breathing, thirst

58. A patient with gastric ulcer is put on antibacterial agents. The nurse should explain to the patient that these are ordered to
A. Augment the immune response
B. Potentiate the effect of antacids
C. Reduce hydrochloric acid secretion
D. Treat Helicobacter pylori infection

59. To prevent pulmonary embolus in a patient on bed rest, the nurse should
A. Encourage deep breathing and coughing exercise
B. Limit the patient’s fluid intake
C. Massage the legs twice daily
D. Teach the patient to move the legs when in bed

60. Conditions that result in decreased serum albumin will result in:
A. Decreased hydrostatic pressure with pressure shift from the interstitium to the vasculature
B. Increased hydrostatic pressure with plasma shift from vasculature to the interstitium
C. Increased oncotic pressure with plasma shift from the interstitium to the vasculature
D. Decreased oncotic pressure with plasma shift from vasculature to the interstitium

61. The coronary arteries
A. Carry high oxygen content blood to the lungs
B. Carry blood from the aorta to the myocardium
C. Carry reduced oxygen content blood to the lungs
D. Supply blood to the endocardium

62. An antidiuretic substance important for maintaining fluid balance is released by
A. Adrenal cortex
B. Adrenal medulla
C. Anterior pituitary gland
D. Posterior pituitary gland.

63. The pain associated with coronary thrombosis is caused primarily by
A. Arterial spasm
B. Blocking in the coronary veins
C. Irritation of nerve endings in the cardiac plexus
D. Ischemia of the heart muscles

64. The ideal fluid replacement for the patient with an Extra – cellular fluid volume deficit is:
A. Isotonic
B. Hypotonic
C. Hypertonic
D. A plasma expander

65. Without any pathological lesions, a patient’s respiratory centre is stimulated by
A. Calcium
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Lactic acid
D. Oxygen

66. An ambu bag is used in the intensive care unit when
A. A respiratory arrest occurs
B. A surgical incision with copious drainage is present
C. The patient is in ventricular fibrillation
D. The respiratory output must be monitored

67. Diabetic coma results from an excess accumulation in the blood of
A. Glucose from rapid CHO metabolism causing drowsiness
B. Ketones from rapid fat breakdown, causing acidosis
C. Nitrogen from protein catabolism causing ammonia intoxication
D. Sodium bicarbonate causing alkalosis

68. A common complication of myocardial infarction is
A. Anaphylactic shock
B. Cardiac arrhythmia
C. Cardiac enlargement
D. Hypokalaemia

69. When assessing a patient with a suspected atelectasis the nurse would expect
A. A dry unproductive cough
B. A normal oral temperature
C. Diminished breath sounds
D. Slow deep respiration

70. Tidal volume can be explained as the amount of air
A. Exhaled forcibly after normal expiration
B. Exhaled normally after normal inspiration
C. Forcibly inspired over and above normal inspiration
D. Trapped in the alveoli that cannot be extended

71. To assess the effectiveness of vasodilators administered for the management of hypertension, the nurse should take the patient’s pulse and blood pressure
A. After a resting position is maintained for 5 minutes
B. Immediately after the patient gets out of bed
C. Prior to administering the drug
D. 30 minutes after giving the drugs

72. In a respiratory acidosis, compensation would be accomplished by:
A. Lungs retaining carbon dioxide
B. Lungs elimination carbon dioxide
C. Kidneys eliminating bicarbonate
D. Kidneys retaining bicarbonate

73. The benefit in using tetanus antitoxin is that it
A. Provides a high titre of antibodies
B. Provides immediate active immunity
C. Stimulates long – lasting passive immunity
D. Stimulates plasma cells directly

74. When a patient is receiving anticoagulant the nursing care should include observation for
A. Chest pain
B. Epistaxis
C. Headache
D. Nausea

75. A patient with diabetes mellitus says “I cannot eat big meals. I prefer eating snacks throughout the day”. The nurse should explain that
A. Large meals can bring about weight problems
B. Regulated food intake is basic to diabetic control
C. Salt and sugar restriction is the main concern
D. Small frequent meals are better for easy digestion

76. A pacemaker is used in some patients to serve the function normally performed by
A. Accelerate nerves to the heart
B. A V node
C. Bundle of His
D. S A node

77. In a patient who has a haemorrhage in the posterior chamber of the eye, the nurse knows that blood is accumulating
A. In the aqueous humour
B. Between the cornea and the lens
C. Between the lens and the retina
D. In the space between the iris and the lens

78. A patient who is exposed to Hepatitis A is given gamma globulin to provide passive immunity which
A. Accelerates antigen – antibody union at the hepatic site
B. Increases the production of short – lived antibodies
C. Provides antibodies that neutralise the antigen
D. Stimulates the lymphatic system to produce antibodies

79. An example of primary prevention activities by the nurse would be
A. Assisting in immunisation programme
B. Correction of dietary deficiencies
C. Establishing goals for rehabilitation
D. Prevention of disabilities

80. When assessing a patient with hyperthyroidism, the nurse should expect the patient to exhibit
A. Increased appetite, slow pulse and dry skin
B. Loss of weight, constipation and restlessness
C. Nervousness, weight loss and increased appetite
D. Protruding eyeballs, slow pulse and sluggishness

81. Increased intraocular pressure may occur as a result of
A. Oedema of the cornea stroma
B. Blockage of the lacrimal canals and duct
C. Dilation of the retinal arterioles
D. Increased production of aqueous humour by the ciliary process

82. When educating the family of a patient with AIDS who has been discharged, the nurse should tell the family
A. let the patient eat from paper plates and discard them
B. Soak the plates in hot water overnight before washing them
C. you need to boil the plates for 30 minutes after use
D. wash the plates in hot soapy water as you usually do

83. It is not important for the nurse to observe a patient with tetanus for
A. Muscular rigidity
B. Respiratory tract spasms
C. Restlessness and irritability
D. Spastic voluntary muscle contractions

84. When caring for a patient who is HIV positive, the nurse should explain to the patient how to prevent
A. AIDS
B. Kaposis sarcoma
C. Other infections
D. Social isolation

85. To prevent orthostatic hypotension in a patient on Methyldopa (Aldomet), the patient should be taught to
A. Avoid tasks that require high, energy expenditure
B. Lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication
C. Sit on the edge of the bed a short time before getting up
D. Wear support hose continuously

86. A patient with rabies will characteristically exhibit
A. Diarrhoea
B. Memory loss
C. Pharyngeal spasm
D. Urinary stasis

87. During physical examination of the patient’s skin, the nurse should
A. Provide a private, well – lighted room
B. Wear gloves during palpation of the skin
C. Focus initially on examination of specific lesions or problem areas
D. Maintain the patient’s privacy by undressing only areas that are abnormal

88. A patient with duodenal ulcer would probably describe the associated pain as
A. A generalised abdominal pain intensified by moving
B. A gnawing sensation relieved by food
C. An ache radiating to the left side
D. An intermittent colicky abdominal pain

89. When a patient is unconscious, the nurse should expect him to be unable to
A. Control elimination
B. Hear voices
C. Move spontaneously
D. React to painful stimuli

90. A patient has left hemiplegia. The nurse contributes to the patient’s rehabilitation by
A. Beginning active exercises
B. Making referral to the physiotherapist
C. Not moving the affected arm unnecessarily
D. Positioning the patient to prevent deformity

91. As a result of inadequate production of erythropoietin in chronic renal failure, patient develops
A. Acidosis
B. Anaemia
C. Calcium and phosphorus
D. Sodium and water retention

92. The quickest and most effective method of removing uremic waste products from the body when the kidneys are unable to do so in cases of hyperkalaemia, hypercalcaemia, hepatic coma and uraemia is
A. Haemodialysis
B. Paracenthesis abdominis
C. Pericardiocenthesis
D. Peritoneal dialysis

93. The nurse should administer nasogastric tube feeding slowly to reduce the hazard of
A. Abdominal distension
B. Flatulence
C. Indigestion
D. Regurgitation

94. Urinary retention with overflow is evidenced by
A. Continual continence
B. Decreased urinary production
C. Frequent voiding
D. Oliguria and oedema

95. The most indicative symptoms of increased intracranial pressure includes
A. Rapid weak pulse, fall in blood press, hypothermia
B. Slow bounding pulse, fall in blood pressure. Hyperthermia
C. Slow bounding pulse, rising blood pressure. Hyperthermia
D. Weak, rapid pulse, normal blood pressure, intermittent fever

96. People should be taught to avoid food products in bulged cans because they might contain
A. Clostridia tetani
B. Clostridia botulinum
C. Escherichia coli
D. Salmonella

97. The gland that manufactures, stores, alters and excretes a large number of substances involved in metabolism in the body is
A. Adrenal
B. Liver
C. Pancreas
D. Thyroid

98. Prophylaxis for Hepatitis B includes
A. Avoiding expired tin food
B. Observing food hygiene
C. Preventing constipation
D. Screening of blood donors

99. A patient who has CVA with a right hemiplegia should not have his blood pressure checked using the right arm because circulatory impairment may
A. Cause excessive pressure on the brachial artery
B. Hinder restoration of function
C. Precipitate the formation of thrombus
D. Produce inaccurate readings

100. Risk factors associated with apoplexy in the elderly patient may include
A. Continuous nervousness
B. Glaucoma
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Transient ischaemic attack