201 - 300 Solved NMC Licensure Questions Bank

201. Among male patients receiving antihypertensive drugs the commonest side effect the nurse Should discuss with the client and his wife is ...
A. Nausea and dizziness
B. Sudden fall in blood pressure
C. Impotence
D. Dizziness

202. Which of the following is a beta-blocker?
A. Glyceryl trinitrate
B. Propranolol
C. Nifedipine
D. Heparin

203. The action of aspirin is to ...
A. Decrease platelet aggregation
B. Dilate coronary and peripheral vessels
C. Resists the conduction of neurons activities
D. Decrease heart rate with increase formation of thrombosis

204. In a patient with a stone lodged in the cystic duct, the nurse observes for...
A. A colicky pain after a fatty meal
B. A painful defaecation
C. A frequent passage of watery stools
D. A prolonged constipation

205. After serving a sublingual nitroglycerin, the nurse must ensure that client has which of the following most important items within easy reach...
A. vomit bowl
B. tissue
C. call bell
D. moist cloth

206. Days after abdominal surgery, the client’s wound dehisces. The safest nursing intervention when this occurs is to
A. Hold the abdominal contents in place with a sterile gloved hand
B. Approximate the wound edges with tapes
C. Cover the wound with sterile, moist saline dressing
D. Irrigate the wound with sterile saline

207. The nurse enters the room of a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The client’s oxygen is running at a rate of 6L per minute, the skin color is pink, and the respirations are 9 per minute and shallow.What is the nurse’s best initial action?
A. Position the client in a Fowler’s position.
B. Lower the oxygen rate
C. Call the physician
D. Take heart rate and blood pressure

208. The nurse is conducting an education session for a group of smokers in a “stop smoking” class. Which finding would the nurse state as a common symptom of lung cancer?
A. Cough or change in a chronic cough
B. Wheezing sound on inspiration
C. Foamy, blood-tinged sputum
D. Dyspnea on exertion

209. Which of the drug of choice for pain controls the patient with acute pancreatitis?
A. Codeine
B. Meperidine
C. NSAIDS
D. None of the above

210. The nurse is teaching the patient regarding his permanent artificial pacemaker. Which information given by the nurse shows her knowledge deficit about the artificial cardiac pacemaker?
A. have regular follow up care
B. take the pulse rate once a day, in the morning upon awakening
C. may engage in contact sports
D. may be allowed to use electrical appliances

211. Mario undergoes a left thoracotomy and a partial pneumonectomy. Chest tubes are inserted, and one-bottle water-seal drainage is instituted in the operating room. Mario is placed in Fowler’s position on either his right side or on his back to
A. Reduce incisional pain.
B. Equalize pressure in the pleural space.
C. Facilitate ventilation of the left lung.
D. Increase venous return

212. When suctioning mucus from a client’s lungs, which nursing action would be least appropriate?
A. Lubricate the catheter tip with sterile saline before insertion.
B. Suction until the client indicates to stop or no longer than 20 second
C. Hyperoxygenate the client before and after suctioning
D. Use sterile technique with a two-gloved approach

213. A nurse at the weight loss clinic assesses a client who has a large abdomen and a rounded face. Which additional assessment finding would lead the nurse to suspect that the client has Cushing’s syndrome rather than obesity?
A. posterior neck fat pad and thin extremities
B. pendulous abdomen and large hips
C. large thighs and upper arms
D. abdominal striae and ankle enlargement

214. The client underwent Billroth surgery for gastric ulcer. The drainage from his NGT is thick and the volume of secretions has dramatically reduced in the last 2 hours and the client feels like vomiting. The most appropriate nursing action is to:
A. Discontinue the low-intermittent suction
B. Reposition the NGT by advancing it gently NSS
C. Irrigate the NGT with 50 cc of sterile
D. Notify the MD of your findings

215. A client is scheduled for a bronchoscopy. When teaching the client what to expect afterward, the nurse’s highest priority of information would be
A. Only ice chips and cold liquids will be allowed initially.
B. Food and fluids will be withheld for at least 2 hours
C. Coughing and deep-breathing exercises will be done q2h.
D. Warm saline gargles will be done q 2h.

216. Valsalva maneuver can result in bradycardia. Which of the following activities will not stimulate Valsalva’s maneuver?
A. Gagging while toothbrushing
B. Use of stool softeners.
C. Enema administration
D. Lifting heavy objects

217. Where is gonadotrophin-releasing hormone produced?
A. Adrenal glands
B. Hypothalamus
C. Anterior pituitary
D. Posterior pituitary

218. Where are luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) produced?
A. Adrenal glands
B. Posterior pituitary
C. Anterior pituitary
D. Hypothalamus

219. At which stage of the uterine cycle does the menstrual phase occur?
A. Days 14-28
B. Days 5-14
C. Days 1-5
D. None of the Above

220. Which hormone is the corpus luteum responsible for producing?
A. Luteinizing hormone
B. Follicle-stimulating hormone
C. Progesterone
D. Oestrogen

221. The following are functions of progesterone except?
A. Initiation of the secretory phase of the endometrium
B. Inhibition of oestrogen production
C. Increase in basal body temperature
D. Inhibition of LH and FSH production

222. At which stage in the uterine cycle does the secretory phase occur?
A. Days 5-14
B. Days 1-5
C. Days 14-28
D. None of the Above

223. Which of the following is not effect of increased levels of oestrogen in the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle?
A. Thickening of the endometrium
B. Thinning of cervical mucous
C. Thickening of cervical mucous
D. None of the Above

224. Which of the following symptoms indicate that a woman is about to ovulate?

I. Decrease in basal body temperature II. Increase in basal body temperature III. Thickening of cervical mucous IV. Thinning of cervical mucous
A. I, II
B. IV only
C. II, III, IV
D. I, III

225. A client is being evaluated for cancer of the colon. In preparing the client for barium enema, the nurse should:
A. Give laxative the night before and a cleansing enema in the morning before the test
B. Place the client on CBR a day before the study
C. Render an oil retention enema and give laxative the night before
D. Instruct the client to swallow 6 radiopaque tablets the evening before the study

226. Immediately after cholecystectomy, the nursing action that should assume the highest priority is:
A. encouraging the client to take adequate deep breaths by mouth
B. encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe
C. irrigate the T-tube frequently
D. changing the dressing at least BID

227. Mr. Perez is in continuous pain from cancer that has metastasized to the bone. Pain medication provides little relief and he refuses to move. The nurse should plan to:
A. Handle him gently when assisting with required care
B. Reassure him that the nurses will not hurt him
C. Let him perform his own activities of daily living
D. Complete A.M. care quickly as possible when necessary

228. The client underwent Billroth surgery for gastric ulcer. The drainage from his NGT is thick and the volume of secretions has dramatically reduced in the last 2 hours and the client feels like vomiting. The most appropriate nursing action is to:
A. Irrigate the NGT with 50 cc of sterile
B. Reposition the NGT by advancing it gently NSS
C. Notify the MD of your findings
D. Discontinue the low-intermittent suction

229. The client has a good understanding of the means to reduce the chances of colon cancer when he states:
A. “I will have an annual chest x-ray.”
B. “I will include more fresh fruits and vegetables in my diet.”
C. “I will exercise daily.”
D. “I will include more red meat in my diet.”

230. The action of aspirin is to ...
A. Decrease platelet aggregation
B. Dilate coronary and peripheral vessels
C. Resists the conduction of neurons activities
D. Decrease heart rate with increase formation of thrombosis

231. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for a nurse to take when a patient is experiencing acute chest pain?
A. Administer the prescribed nitroglycerin and access pain level
B. Have the patient sit up and try to walk
C. Encourage the patient to take deep breaths and relax
D. Delay any intervention until a cardiologist is available

232. Which of the following is a beta-blocker?
A. Glyceryl trinitrate
B. Propranolol
C. Nifedipine
D. Heparin

233. In a patient with a stone lodged in the cystic duct, the nurse observes for...
A. A colicky pain after a fatty meal
B. A painful defaecation
C. A frequent passage of watery stools
D. A prolonged constipation

234. Calcium channel blockers act on blood vessels to ...
A. Decrease the force of contraction
B. Increase thrombosis formation
C. Dilate coronary and peripheral vessels
D. Decrease the preload

235. Prior to abdominal paracentesis for a client with ascites, the first action of the nurse is ...
A. Put the client in a fowler’s position
B. Measure the weight of the client
C. Make sure the bladder is empty
D. Take the client’s temperature every quarter hourly.

236. In a client with a diabetic coma, the nurse must observe patient for...
A. The presence of sugar content in the urine
B. abnormal increase blood glucose
C. Polydypsia
D. Polyphagia

237. Which of the following drugs is often prescribed to relief pain of leukemic patient ...
A. Metformin
B. Cyclophosphamide
C. Morphine
D. Doxorubicn

238. In a patient diagnosed with leukemia, the leucocyte count usually..
A. Rises above normal range
B. Is within normal range
C. Is below normal range
D. Is difficult to be determined

239. Before a nurse serves digoxin to a client, she should .
A. Cheek the blood pressure
B. Check the pulse rate
C. Cheek the urine output
D. Cheek the respiratory rate

240. The most widely used method of administering drugs is ...
A. Rectal administration
B. Parenteral administration
C. Oral administration
D. Nasal inhalation

241. The hormone responsible for the development of the ovum during the menstrual cycle is?
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Follicle Stimulating hormone (FSH)
D. Luteneizing hormone (LH)

242. Which hormone is not responsible for differentiation of male reproductive organs during fetal life?
A. Mullerian duct inhibitor (MDI)
B. Dyhydrotestosterone
C. Dehydroepiandosterone sulfate (DHEA-S)
D. Testosterone

243. Which principal factor causes vaginal pH to be acidic?
A. Cervical mucus changes
B. Secretion of the Skene’s gland
C. The action of the doderlein bacillus
D. Secretion of the bartholins gland

244. Family centered nursing care for women and newborn focuses on which of the following?
A. Assisting individuals and families achieve their optimal health
B. Diagnosing and treating problems promptly
C. Preventing further complications from developing
D. Conducting nursing research to evaluate clinical skills

245. When reviewing the ethical dilemmas facing maternal and newborn nurses today, which of the following has contributed to their complexity?
A. Limitation of available options
B. Support for one viable action
C. Advancement in technology
D. Consistent desirable standards

246. The frenulum and prepuce of the clitoris are formed by the?
A. Fossa Navicularis
B. Mons veneris
C. Labia majora
D. Labia minora

247. The vas deferens is a:
A. Site of spermatozoa production
B. Conduit of spermatozoa
C. Passageway of sperm
D. Storage for spermatozoa

248. Cremasteric visits the clinic and is told that his sperm count is normal. A normal sperm count ranges from:
A. 20 to 100/ml
B. 100, 000 to 200, 000/ml
C. 100 to 200/ml
D. 20 to 100 million/ml

249. During which of the following phase of the menstrual cycle is it ideal for implantation of a fertilized egg to occur?
A. Secretory phase
B. Proliferative phase
C. Menstrual phase
D. Ischemic phase

250. The nurse is attending a bridal shower for a friend when another guest, who happens to be a diabetic, starts to tremble and complains of dizziness. The next best action for the nurse to take is to:
A. Call the guest’s personal physician
B. Offer the guest a cup of coffee
C. Encourage the guest to eat some baked macaroni
D. Give the guest a glass of orange juice

251. A client with chronic heart failure has been placed on a diet restricted to 2000mg. of sodium per day. The client demonstrates adequate knowledge if behaviors are evident such as not salting food and avoidance of which food?
A. Eggs
B. Plain nuts
C. Canned sardines
D. Whole milk

252. Variation on the length of menstrual cycle is due to variations in the number of days in which of the following phase?
A. Proliferative phase
B. Secretory phase
C. Luteal phase
D. Ischemic phase

253. The nurse’s first action should be to:
A. Admit Mrs. Calamares to the delivery area
B. Check the vaginal discharge with nitrazine paper
C. Call the physician
D. Check the FHR

254. When asked to describe the amniotic fluid, Mrs. Calamares states that it is “brown-tinged”. This indicates that:
A. The fetus is not experiencing any undue stress
B. The fetus is in distress and should be delivered immediately
C. At some point, the fetus experienced oxygen deprivation
D. The fetus had infection

255. Which of the following methods would be avoided for a woman who is 38 years old, has 3 children and smokes a pack of cigarette per day?
A. IUD (Intra-uterine device)
B. Diaphragm
C. Cervical cap
D. Oral contraceptives

256. A woman using diaphragm for contraception should be instructed to leave it in place for at least how long after intercourse?
A. 28 hours
B. 1 hour
C. 6 hours
D. 12 hours

257. When assessing the adequacy of sperm for conception to occur, which of the following is the most helpful criterion?
A. sperm count
B. sperm motility
C. Sperm maturity
D. Semen volume

258. A couple with one child had been trying, without success for several years to have another child. Which of the following terms would describe the situation?
A. Primary Infertility
B. Secondary Infertility
C. Irreversible infertility
D. Sterility

259. Which of the following may happen if the uterus becomes over stimulated by oxytocin during induction of labor?
A. Weak contractions prolonged to more than 70 sec
B. Titanic contractions prolonged for more than 90 sec
C. Increased pain with bright red vaginal bleeding
D. Increased restlessness

260. Which of the following factors is the underlying cause of dystocia?
A. Nutritional
B. Environmental
C. Mechanical
D. Medical

261. When fetal surface of the placenta presents a central depression surrounded by a thickened grayish white ring, the condition is known as:
A. Placenta succenturiata
B. Placenta marginata
C. Fenestrated placenta
D. Placenta Circumvallata

262. The client presents with severe rectal bleeding, 16 diarrheal stools a day, severe abdominal pain, tenesmus and dehydration. Because of these symptoms the nurse should be alert for other problems associated with what disease?
A. Peritonitis
B. Ulcerative colitis
C. Diverticulitis
D. Chrons disease

263. Which of the following is derived from mesoderm?
A. lining of the GI tract
B. brain
C. liver
D. skeletal system

264. Immediately after cholecystectomy, the nursing action that should assume the highest priority is:
A. irrigate the T-tube frequently
B. changing the dressing at least BID
C. encouraging the client to take adequate deep breaths by mouth
D. encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe

265. What is the best reason for the nurse in instructing the client to rotate injection sites for insulin?
A. Injection sites can never be reused
B. Lipodystrophic areas can result, causing erratic insulin absorption rates from these
C. Lipodystrophy can result and is extremely painful
D. Poor rotation technique can cause superficial hemorrhaging

266. Which one of the following is the primary source of progesterone in the later stages of pregnancy?
A. Placenta
B. Corpus luteum
C. Endometrium
D. Fetus

267. At which stage in the uterine cycle does the proliferative phase occur?
A. Days 15-28
B. Days 5-14
C. Days 1-5
D. None of the Above

268. When Umbilical cord is inserted at the edge of the placenta is termed:
A. Lateral insertion
B. Velamentous insertion
C. Battledore insertion
D. Central insertion

269. Which of the following is not a part of conceptus?
A. deciduas
B. amniotic fluid
C. fetus
D. membranes

270. To determine the clients EDC, which day of the menstrual period will you ask?
A. first
B. last
C. third
D. second

271. In a normal 28 day menstrual cycle, when would you expect the LH surge to occur?
A. Days 17-19
B. Days 14-16
C. Days 11-13
D. Days 8-10

272. According to Diane, her LMP is November 15, 2002, using the Naegle’s rule what is her EDC?
A. August 22, 2003
B. August 18, 2003
C. July 22, 2003
D. February 22, 2003

273. The main symptom of gonorrhea in male is:
A. Maculopapular rash
B. Jaundice
C. Urinary retention
D. Urethral discharge

274. In providing education to your clients, you should take into account the fact that the most effective method known to control the spread of HIV infection is:
A. Premarital serological screening
B. Prophylactic treatment of exposed person
C. On going sex education about preventive behaviors
D. Laboratory screening of pregnant woman

275. You counseled one of your clients who developed herpes genitalis concerning follow up care. Women who have developed the disease are at risk of developing:
A. Heart and CNS damage
B. Cervical cancer
C. Infant Pneumonia and eye infection
D. Sterility

276. Cremasteric, 19 y/o states that he has Gonorrhea. In performing assessment, the nurse should expect to identify which of the following symptoms?
A. Dysuria
B. Urinary dribbling
C. A pinpoint rash on the penis
D. Lesion on the palms and soles

277. The nurse should explain to Rhone, 15 y/o that untreated Gonorrhea in the female frequently leads to:
A. Obstruction of the Fallopian tubes
B. Ovarian cysts
C. Ulceration of the cervix
D. Endometrial polyps

278. Diane, a 16 y/o female high school student has syphilis. Treatment is initiated. Before the client leaves the clinic, which of the following actions is essential for the nurse to take?
A. Advice the client to avoid sexual contact for 2 months
B. Ask the client to identify her sexual contacts
C. Arrange for the client to have hearing and vision screening
D. Have the client to return to the clinic weekly for blood test

279. Demi who has history of repeated Trichomonas infections was advised to have Pap-smear by her physician. She asked you what the test is for. Your appropriate response is:
A. It’s a screening for cervical cancer
B. It’s a screening test for presence of cancer in the female reproductive tract
C. It is a diagnostic test for the presence of Trichomonas infection
D. It is a test that will show if she has cervical cancer or not.

280. The result of the pap-test is class II. This means that:
A. Presence of malignant cells
B. Presence of benign or possible malignancy
C. Normal finding
D. Possible inflammation or infections

281. You should be aware that a major difficulty in preventing spread of gonorrhea is that many women who have the disease:
A. Is unaware that they have it
B. Have milder form of the disease than most men
C. Are more reluctant to seek health care than men
D. Acquire the disease without having sexual contact

282. Which of the following symptoms do you expect to see in a patient diagnosed with acute pyelonephritis?
A. Jaundice and flank pain
B. Costovertebral angle tenderness and chills
C. Burning sensation on urination
D. Polyuria and nocturia

283. You have a patient that might have a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which statement by the patient suggests that a UTI is likely?
A. “I pee a lot.”
B. “It burns when I pee.”
C. “I go hours without the urge to pee.”
D. “My pee smells sweet.”

284. Which instructions do you include in the teaching care plan for a patient with cystitis receiving phenazopyridine (Pyridium)?
A. If the urine turns orange-red, call the doctor.
B. Take phenazopyridine just before urination to relieve pain.
C. Once painful urination is relieved, discontinue prescribed antibiotics.
D. After painful urination is relieved, stop taking phenazopyridine

285. Which patient is at greatest risk for developing a urinary tract infection (UTI)?
A. A 35 y.o. woman with a fractured wrist
B. A 20 y.o. woman with asthma
C. A 50 y.o. postmenopausal woman
D. A 28 y.o. with angina

286. You have a patient that is receiving peritoneal dialysis. What should you do when you notice the return fluid is slowly draining?
A. Check for kinks in the outflow tubing.
B. Raise the drainage bag above the level of the abdomen.
C. Place the patient in a reverse Trendelenburg position.
D. Ask the patient to cough.

287. What is the appropriate infusion time for the dialysate in your 38 y.o. patient with chronic renal failure undergoing peritoneal dialysis?
A. 15 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 1 hour
D. 2 to 3 hours

288. A 30 y.o. female patient is undergoing hemodialysis with an internal arteriovenous fistula in place. What do you do to prevent complications associated with this device?
A. Insert I.V. lines above the fistula.
B. Avoid taking blood pressures in the arm with the fistula.
C. Palpate pulses above the fistula.
D. Report a bruit or thrill over the fistula to the doctor.

289. Your patient becomes restless and tells you she has a headache and feels nauseous during hemodialysis. Which complication do you suspect?
A. Infection
B. Disequilibrium syndrome
C. Air embolism
D. Acute hemolysis

290. Your patient is complaining of muscle cramps while undergoing hemodialysis. Which intervention is effective in relieving muscle cramps?
A. Increase the rate of dialysis.
B. Infuse normal saline solution.
C. Administer a 5% dextrose solution.
D. Encourage active ROM exercises.

291. Your patient with chronic renal failure reports pruritus. Which instruction should you include in this patient’s teaching plan?
A. Rub the skin vigorously with a towel.
B. Take frequent baths.
C. Apply alcohol-based emollients to the skin.
D. Keep fingernails short and clean.

292. Which intervention do you plan to include with a patient who has renal calculi?
A. Maintain bed rest
B. Increase dietary purines
C. Restrict fluids
D. Strain all urine

293. An 18 y.o. student is admitted with dark urine, fever, and flank pain and is diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis. Which would most likely be in this student’s health history?
A. Renal calculi
B. Renal trauma
C. Recent sore throat
D. Family history of acute glomerulonephritis

294. Several problems and needs may be identified in a client at home, one of these will help you meet your goals.
A. Decide
B. Evaluate
C. Implement
D. Prioritize

295. Which of these activities can be performed on client in the home?

I. Checking blood pressure
II. Medical examination
III. Urine testing
IV. Wound dressing
A. I, II, III
B. I, II, IV
C. I, III, IV
D. II, III, IV

296. When caring for the aged in the home the nurse should bear in mind that there is less ability of the wound to heal because of:
A. Degeneration of the tissues
B. Diminished blood circulation
C. Inadequate nutrition
D. Inelasticity of the skin

297. Reasons for nursing the sick in the home may include the following:

I. Decongest health care institution
II. Involve family members in the care
III. Prevent complication of illness
IV. Use available and familiar resources
A. I, II, III
B. I, II, IV
C. I, III, IV
D. II, III, IV

298. What advice would you give a 70-year-old man who complains to you about having poor sight?
A. Ask if there is a family history of blindness
B. Put eye ointment on it if it itches
C. Visit a health facility for check up
D. Wash eye regularly with clean water

299. After immunizing a child with polio vaccine, what will you tell the mother for the vaccine to dissolve well?
A. Close the mouth of the child for 30 minutes
B. Do not breastfeed for the next 30 minutes
C. Open the mouth of the child to see the vaccine
D. Prevent the babies from crying and spitting

300. The recommended schedule for immunization considers: I. Age of starting the immunization II. Doses and intervals between them III. Strategies used for the immunization IV. Route of administration of the vaccines
A. I, III, IV
B. I, II, III
C. I, II, IV
D. II, III, IV