301 - 400 Solved NMC Licensure Questions Bank

301. When you are asked by a client how vaccination is different from immunization you would explain that vaccination is the:
A. Introduction of antigens into the body
B. Prevention of specific childhood diseases
C. Process of ensuring proper development of the child
D. Process of producing antibodies in the body

302. One of these vaccines would be destroyed when it is left to freeze:
A. DPT/Hlb, Hep B
B. Measles vaccine
C. OPV vaccine
D. Yellow fever vaccine

303. Ice packs are necessary equipment for:
A. Monitoring cumulative heat exposure
B. Maintaining vaccine potency
C. Observing colour change of vaccines
D. Preventing the melting of vaccines

304. The objectives of family planning in this country include:

I. Assisting people to stop having children
II. Manage reproductive tract infection
III. Promote dual protection for pregnancy and STD’s
IV. Provide information, education and counselling
A. I, III, IV
B. II, III, IV
C. I, II, IV
D. I, II, III

305. People are becoming more interested in natural family planning because it is based on:
A. Prevents sperm from entering the uterus
B. Protecting against HIV/AIDS in both man and woman
C. Creating a barrier between the sperm and egg
D. Changes that occur in a woman’s cycle

306. Some of the disadvantages of the combined oral contraceptive pill are:

I. Acne on the face
II. Decreased libido
III. Depression
IV. Weight gain
A. II, III, IV
B. I, III, IV
C. I, II, IV
D. I, II, III

307. The Depo Provera is a progestin only injectable which acts by:

I. Changing the lining of the uterus
II. Diluting the consistency of the semen
III. Suppressing or stopping ovulation
IV. Thickening the cervical mucus
A. I, II, IV
B. I, III, IV
C. I, II, III
D. II, III, IV

308. One of these is NOT an advantage of Home Visiting:
A. Defaulters of health services are traced
B. Creates good working relationship
C. Ensures continuity of care for clients
D. Provides opportunity for families to share experiences

309. During physical examination of a SIX-month malnourished child, in the home, the skin will be inspected for:
A. Boils
B. Spots
C. Rashes
D. Turgor

310. In communicable disease control, the factor whose presence leads to a pathogenic disease is the:
A. Contact
B. Carrier
C. Host
D. Agent

311. For an infectious disease to develop these factors must be present:

I. Capable agent
II. Portal of entry
III. Resistance
IV. Susceptible host
A. I, II, III
B. I, II, IV
C. I, III, IV
D. II, III, IV

312. The primary function of the Community Health Officer (CHO) in a CHPS Zone is:
A. Health talk
B. Home visiting
C. Immunization
D. Weighing

313. In which stage of development of the plasmodium in the cycle of malaria is the mosquito infective?
A. Merozoite
B. Sporozoite
C. Oocyte
D. Gametocyte

314. These measures can control and prevent Bilhaziasis

I. Boiling of water from river sources
II. Destroying river snails at river banks
III. Identification and treatment of cases
IV. Protecting water bodies from contamination
A. I, II, IV
B. I, III, IV
C. II, III, IV
D. I, II, III

315. In disease surveillance, a situation where there is reduction in the incidence and prevalence of a disease is:
A. Control
B. Elimination
C. Eradication
D. Prevention

316. A client who is suspected to have the AIDS disease is confirmed by:
A. CD4 test
B. OraQuick and SD Bioline tests
C. HIV test
D. ZDV test

317. The type of immunity derived while the child is in the mother’s uterus is called:
A. Active artificial immunity
B. Active natural immunity
C. Passive artificial immunity
D. Passive natural immunity

318. Which of these diseases confers a lasting immunity to the individual:

I. Chickenpox
II. Diphtheria
III. Measles
IV. Poliomyelitis
A. I, II, IV
B. II, III, IV
C. I, II, III
D. I, III, IV

319. Personal protection of the worker against exposure to occupational risk is to:
A. Ensure collective bargaining
B. Monitor daily schedule of workers
C. Provide protective devices
D. Advise on the work environment

320. Periodic medical examination for food vendors should be carried out at least:
A. Three times a year
B. Once a year
C. Once every two years
D. Two times a year

321. In the current strategy for managing pulmonary tuberculosis, the disease is usually confirmed by
A. Chest X-ray
B. Clinical examination
C. Sputum examination
D. Ultra sound

322. When a person acquires a level of immunity where body cells are been stimulated to produce the antibodies, he/she is said to have
A. Passive immunity
B. Herd immunity
C. Innate immunity
D. Active immunity

323. In conducting a home visit a malnourished child, Adisa will require one of the following
A. BP apparatus
B. Protein densed food
C. Vaccines
D. Weighing scale

324. A community practices indiscriminate defaecation. Which of the following will be the best option in solving the problem
A. Communal ownership of latrine
B. Individual ownership
C. Institution of sanction
D. Provision of paid latrine

325. Which of the following factors would you consider when choosing clothing for an 80year old lady?
A. Availability, washability, and colour
B. Colour, comfort and cost
C. Washability, comfort and colour
D. Cost, comfort and washability

326. An active child who has a thin limbs, wrinkle skin, and cries a lot is said to be suffering from
A. Beriberi
B. Kwashiorkor
C. Marasmus
D. Marasmic-Kwashiorkor

327. One of the signs of hookworm infestation is
A. Anaemia
B. Malaena stool
C. Black water fever
D. Haematuria

328. A susceptible person is said to be an individual who has
A. Average resistance
B. Little or no resistance
C. More or adequate resistance
D. More natural resistance

329. Which of the following methods of purification would you recommend for community with a problem of guinea worm infestation?
A. Boiling
B. Chlorination
C. Filtering
D. Sedimentation

330. How would you handle an 18year old who walks into your clinic for hormonal contraceptive?
A. Counsel her on all the methods
B. Give her condoms since she is young
C. Supply the hormonals
D. Tell her to abstain from sex

331. Which of the following microorganisms is responsible for the black patches on bread?
A. Bacteria
B. Fungi
C. Protozoa
D. Virus

332. Illness following entrance of infection into the body depends on

I. Adequate fluid intake
II. constitution of host
III. Emotional health
IV. Wearing of gowns and masks
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I, II and III
D. I, II, III and IV

333. To promote lactation in a woman who has just delivered, she should;

I. Avoid demand feeding
II. Breastfeed frequently
III. Massage the breast
IV. Relax her mind
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. I, III and IV
D. II, III and IV

334. Choice of clothing for a pregnant women depends on the
A. Choice
B. Diet
C. Taste
D. Weather

335. In the administration of intravenous fluids as prescribed which of the following would provide the most reliable indicator for determining the adequacy.
A. Mental status
B. Peripheral pulse
C. Urine output
D. Vital signs

336. A client is being treated in the burn unit for second and third degree burns, the physician orders include the application of silver sulfadiazine cream. The best way for the nurse to apply this
A. Sterile dressings soaked in saline
B. Sterile tongue depressor
C. Sterile gloved hand
D. Sterile cotton-topped application

337. The nurse should explain to Rhone, 15 y/o that untreated Gonorrhea in the female frequently leads to:
A. Endometrial polyps
B. Ovarian cysts
C. Ulceration of the cervix
D. Obstruction of the Fallopian tubes

338. Kris complains of fishy smelling, white cheeselike vaginal discharge with pruritus. You suspect that Kris may have:
A. Trichomoniasis
B. Syphilis
C. Gonorrhea
D. Moniliasis

339. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a patient who is post-operative and experiencing nausea and vomiting?
A. Encourage the patient to drink clear fluids immediately
B. Administer antiemetic medication as prescribed
C. Encourage the patient to eat solid food to promote recovery
D. Keep the patient in a supine position to prevent aspiration

340. In which of the following conditions is vaginal rugae most prominent?
A. multiparous women
B. before menopause
C. after menopause
D. nulliparous waman

341. The compulsion to drink alcoholic beverages is termed as:
A. Dipsomania
B. Dysgeusia
C. Tolerance
D. Alcohol abuse

342. Which of the following vitamins cannot be found from a plant source?
A. vitamin B12
B. vitamin A
C. vitamin E
D. vitamin B1

343. Guinea worm disease is described as...
A. air and vector borne
B. food borne
C. vector borne
D. air borne only

344. Tetanus bacilli enter the body through...
A. the oral cavity
B. the oral route
C. the site of the wound
D. were there is a dead tissue

345. Recovery from yellow fever is followed by ...
A. a temporal immunity
B. an initial immunity
C. no immunity
D. lasting immunity

346. The tetanus bacteria live predominantly in ...
A. air
B. soil
C. water
D. air and water

347. The causative organism of typhoid fever is called
A. Salmonella typhoid bacterial
B. Salmonella typhi bacterial
C. Salmonella fever bacterial
D. Salmonella typhus bacterial

348. The causative organism of yellow fever is called
A. Flavivirus
B. Vibrocholerea
C. AedesEgypti
D. AedesEgypti mosquito

349. The main factor that can help you detect a client with hypertension during home visit is
A. Dyspnoea
B. High blood pressure
C. Severe headache
D. Weakness of the body

350. Adults learn differently from children because their learning is mostly directed by
A. Experience
B. Reading
C. Maturity
D. Understanding

351. In the process of communication where the sender’s intent and ideas are made meaningful to the sender is
A. Coding
B. Decoding
C. Encoding
D. Feedback

352. Nursing care for a 7-year-old girl admitted with tetanus should be primarily direction towards
A. careful monitoring of urinary output
B. decreasing external stimuli
C. encouraging high intake of fluid
D. Giving adequate diet

353. Esther, 4years is rushed to the emergency ward convulsing, with the skin very hot to touch. What immediate step would you take to reduce the temperature?
A. Give her 5mls paracetamol syrup
B. Take the axillary temperature
C. Reassure the mother
D. Tepid sponge the child

354. When teaching an adolescent with Type I diabetes about dietary management the nurses should instruct him to
A. Always carry a concentrated form of glucose
B. Eat all meals at home
C. Weigh all food on a gram scale
D. Let parent prepare food separately for him

355. Adolescent girl suffering from cancer is on antineoplastic drugs. The side effect of these drugs that requires early preparation of the patient is
A. alopecia
B. constipation
C. generalized short-term paralysis
D. Retarded growth in height

356. An essential nursing action when caring for a small child with severe diarrhoea and vomiting is to
A. check weight daily
B. encourage oral fluids intake
C. keep body temperature below 38oC
D. Replace lose calories

357. Which of the following is a common sign of hypoglycemia in a diabetic patient?
A. Increased thirst and urination
B. Shaking, sweating, and confusion
C. Rapid weight gain
D. Dry, flushed skin

358. A 7-year-old boy is admitted to the kids ward with suspected right sided pneumonia. The appropriate position for the child would be
A. head of bed elevated 10 degrees
B. in a prone position
C. in supine position
D. Turned on the right side

359. The purpose of traction for children with fracture is to
A. Make the bone grow faster
B. Prepare the area for surgery
C. Prevent future fractures
D. Realign bone fragments

360. To promote absorption of an iron supplement it should be administered
A. During meal
B. Two hours after meals with orange juice
C. Immediately before meals
D. Two hours after meals with milk

361. You are on night duty and a patient who has been on the ward for 3 days suddenly becomes aggressive, breaks a louver blade and stabs himself with it. The patient bleeds to death. What kind of report would you write on this patient?
A. Incident
B. Twenty- four hour
C. Nurses
D. Daily

362. Kwame, a catatonic schizophrenic patient has been pacing up and down on the ward fro the past one hour
A. help client to relax by engaging him in ward activities
B. monitor client closely
C. restrain client to prevent exhaustion and dehydration
D. serve client with his medication

363. A patient who normally complains that her food is poisoned and always insist that the nurse taste the food before she eats has ...personality.
A. Antisocial
B. Asthenic
C. Paranoid
D. Schizoid

364. Clinical features of panic attack Includes I. feeling of chocking II. Numbness III. a state of shock
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I,II and III

365. A patient with bulimia nervosa frequent secret eating is usually followed by feeling of
A. anger
B. depression
C. humiliation
D. unreality

366. Maturation results from the aging process whereas learning
A. Is produced by experience
B. occurs in adult
C. results from heredity
D. results from good nutrition

367. In adolescence, the term 'growth spurt' refers to
A. a type of behavior Indicating a parahillia
B. Confusional state characterized by memory loss
C. the rapid physical development
D. The identity confusion experienced in early sexual stimulation

368. A client is scheduled for routine glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) test. What is important for the nurse to tell the client before this test?
A. Drink only water after midnight and come to the clinic early in the morning
B. Eat a normal breakfast and be at the clinic 2 hours because of the multiple blood draws
C. Expect to be at the clinic for several hours because of the multiple blood draws
D. Come to the clinic at the earliest convenience to have blood drawn

369. It is important for the nurse to teach the client that metformin (Glcucophage):
A. May cause nocturia
B. Should be taken at night
C. Should be taken with meals
D. May increase the effects of aspirin

370. When caring for client in thyroid crisis, the nurse would question an order for:
A. IV fluid
B. Prophylthiouracil
C. A hyperthermia blanket
D. Propanolol (Inderal)

371. A client is walking down the hall and begins to experience vertigo. What is the most important nursing action when this occurs?
A. Have the client sit in a chair and lower his head
B. Administer meclizine (Antivert) PO
C. Assist the client to sit or lie down
D. Assess if the occurrence is vertigo or dizziness

372. When a patient is semi-conscious, the nurse should expect the patient to be unable to
A. Control elimination
B. Hear voices
C. Move spontaneously
D. React to painful stimuli

373. Soon after being admitted for head injuries a patient’s temperature risen up to 39.4OC. This suggests injury to the
A. Hypothalamus
B. Temporal lobe
C. Medulla oblongata
D. Thalamus

374. To prevent the development of contractures in a patient with spinal injury, the nurse should give careful consideration to
A. Active exercise
B. Deep massage of the limbs
C. Proper use of fracture board
D. Proper positioning

375. Which of the following diets would be appropriate for the patient with ulcerative colitis
A. High fibre, low fat
B. Low protein, high calorie
C. High carbohydrate, low sodium
D. Low residue, high protein

376. A priority nursing diagnosis for a patient with ulcerative colitis is
A. Diarrhoea related to hypermotility
B. High risk for infection
C. Ineffective coping
D. Imbalanced nutrition less than body requirement

377. Conservative management of haemorrhoids include the following EXCEPT
A. Ligation of the haemorrhoids
B. Ice compresses for discomfort
C. High fibre diet
D. Laxatives and stool softeners

378. The pain associated with coronary thrombosis is caused primarily by
A. Ischemia of the heart muscles
B. Irritation of nerve endings in the cardiac plexus
C. Blocking in the coronary veins
D. Arterial spasm

379. The ideal fluid replacement for the patient with an Extra cellular fluid volume deficit is:
A. A plasma expander
B. Hypertonic
C. Hypotonic
D. Isotonic

380. Without any pathological lesions, a patient's respiratory centre is stimulated by
A. Calcium
B. Lactic acid
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Oxygen

381. An ambu bag is used in the intensive care unit when
A. A respiratory arrest occurs
B. A surgical incision with copious drainage is present
C. The patient is in ventricular fibrillation
D. The respiratory output must be monitored

382. First postop day after a right lower lobe (RLL) lobectomy, the client breathes and coughs but has difficulty raising mucus. What indicates that the client is not adequately clearing secretions?
A. A few scattered crackles on RLL on auscultation
B. PCO2 increases from 35-45 mm Hg
C. Decrease in forced vital capacity
D. Chest x-ray film shows right sided pleural fluid

383. What nursing observations indicate that the cuff on an endotracheal tube is leaking?
A. An increase in peak pressure on the ventilator
B. Client is able to speak
C. Increased swallowing efforts by client
D. Increased crackles (rales) over left lung field

384. What medication would the nurse anticipate giving a client with Meniere’s dse?
A. Nifedipine
B. Amoxicillin
C. Propanolol
D. Hydrochloride (Hydro DIURIL)

385. As a result of a fractured rib the patient may develop
A. Herniation of the diaphragm
B. Pneumothorax
C. Scoliosis
D. Obstructive lung disease

386. When suctioning a patient with a tracheostomy must remember to
A. Inflate suction as the catheter is being withdrawn
B. Insert the catheter until the cough reflex is stimulated
C. Remove the inner cannula before inserting the suction catheter
D. Use a new sterile catheter with each insertion

387. Following extensive and prolonged surgery, it is important that the nurse observes the patient for depletion of which electrolyte?
A. Calcium
B. Chloride
C. Potassium
D. Sodium

388. Which of these is assessed to determine the course of prostate cancer?
A. Blood urea estimation
B. Creatinine
C. Prostate fluid for WBC
D. Prostate specific antigen

389. Varicose veins are usually the result of
A. Atherosclotic plaques along the veins
B. Defective valves within the veins
C. Eternal compression of the muscles of the leg
D. The formation of thrombophlebitis

390. Which of the following will suggest to the nurse that a patient is experiencing auditory hallucinations?
A. Brushing his skin continuously
B. Gets up suddenly and stands at attention
C. Repeats a sentence over and over again
D. Sings a song as he walks down the hall

391. When a patient on admission refuses food the nurse should:
A. Finds out the reason
B. Inform patient’s daughter
C. Leaves him alone until he is hungry
D. Passes NG tube and feed him through it

392. When a patient has a grand mal seizure, which one of the following tasks has the highest priority?
A. Administer oxygen
B. Check blood pressure and pulse
C. Establish patent airway
D. Removes the top sheet

393. Which of the following is an open-ended question?
A. Do you need anything from the doctor?
B. How do you feel today?
C. How is your dressing and the pain?
D. Have you been getting visitors?

394. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when administering a medication via a nasogastric (NG) tube?
A. Crush all medications together and administer at once
B. Ensure the NG tube is patent by checking for any blockages
C. Administer the medication with a large volume of water to avoid clogging
D. Mix the medication with a high-fat liquid to aid absorption

395. Which of the following is the priority nursing assessment for a patient receiving intravenous (IV) fluids?
A. Assessing the patient's nutritional intake
B. Checking the patient’s blood glucose levels every 4 hours
C. Ensuring the patient is ambulating every hour
D. Monitoring the IV site for signs of infection or infiltration

396. What is the primary purpose of using reverse isolation for a patient?
A. To prevent the spread of infection from the patient to others
B. To reduce the patient's anxiety and stress
C. To protect the patient from external infections
D. To provide emotional support to the patient’s family

397. Which of the following is the most important nursing action when caring for a patient with a chest tube?
A. Ensure the tube is clamped during patient ambulation
B. Monitor for bubbling in the water-seal chamber of the drainage system
C. Encourage deep breathing and coughing every 2 hours
D. Remove the chest tube as soon as drainage decreases

398. A patient is experiencing a sudden onset of shortness of breath, chest pain, and anxiety following a surgical procedure. Which of the following should be the nurse's first action?
A. Place the patient in a supine position
B. Obtain a chest X-ray
C. Prepare for intubation
D. Administer oxygen as prescribed

399. The following are stages of grand mal epilepsy EXCEPT
A. Aura
B. Focal
C. Clonic
D. Tonic

400. Jane developed reddened rashes on the cheek which later involve the arm flexures, leg and gams. Which of the following has she got?
A. Impetigo
B. Psoriasis
C. Eczema
D. Scabies