501 - 600 Solved CBT Styled Practical MCQ Test Questions Bank

501. A 15-year-old primigravida is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of HELLP syndrome. Which laboratory finding is associated with HELLP syndrome?
A. Elevated blood glucose
B. Elevated platelet count
C. Elevated creatinine clearance
D. Elevated hepatic enzymes

502. The nurse is assessing the deep tendon reflexes of a client with pre-eclampsia. Which method is used to elicit the biceps reflex?
A. The nurse places her thumb on the muscle inset in the antecubital space and taps the thumb briskly with the reflex hammer.
B. The nurse loosely suspends the client’s arm in an open hand while tapping the back of the client’s elbow.
C. The nurse instructs the client to dangle her legs as the nurse strikes the area below the patella with the blunt side of the reflex hammer.
D. The nurse instructs the client to place her arms loosely at her side as the nurse strikes the muscle insert just above the wrist.

503. Which observation in the newborn of a diabetic mother would require immediate nursing intervention?
A. Crying
B. Wakefulness
C. Jitteriness
D. Yawning

504. The nurse caring for a client receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate must closely observe for side effects associated with drug therapy. An expected side effect of magnesium sulfate is:
A. Decreased urinary output
B. Hypersomnolence
C. Absence of knee jerk reflex
D. Decreased respiratory rate

505. A newborn with narcotic abstinence syndrome is admitted to the nursery. Nursing care of the newborn should include:
A. Teaching the mother to provide tactile stimulation
B. Wrapping the newborn snugly in a blanket
C. Placing the newborn in the infant seat
D. Initiating an early infant-stimulation program

506. A client elects to have epidural anesthesia to relieve the discomfort of labour. Following the initiation of epidural anesthesia, the nurse should give priority to:
A. Checking for cervical dilation
B. Placing the client in a supine position
C. Checking the client’s blood pressure
D. Obtaining a fetal heart rate

507. When assessing a labouring client, the nurse finds a prolapsed cord. The nurse should:
A. Attempt to replace the cord.
B. Place the client on her left side.
C. Elevate the client’s hips.
D. None of the above

508. A client who delivered this morning tells the nurse that she plans to breastfeed her baby. The nurse is aware that successful breastfeeding is most dependent on the:
A. Mother’s educational level
B. Infant’s birth weight
C. Size of the mother’s breast
D. Mother’s desire to breastfeed

509. The nurse is monitoring the progress of a client in labour. Which finding should be reported to the physician immediately?
A. The presence of scant bloody discharge
B. Frequent urination
C. The presence of green-tinged amniotic fluid
D. Moderate uterine contractions

510. The nurse is measuring the duration of the client’s contractions. Which statement is true regarding the measurement of the duration of contractions?
A. Duration is measured by timing from the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction.
B. Duration is measured by timing from the end of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction.
C. Duration is measured by timing from the beginning of one contraction to the end of the same contraction.
D. Duration is measured by timing from the peak of one contraction to the end of the same contraction.

511. The physician has ordered an intravenous infusion of Pitocin for the induction of labour. When caring for the obstetric client receiving intravenous Pitocin, the nurse should monitor for:
A. Maternal hypoglycemia
B. Fetal bradycardia
C. Maternal hyperreflexia
D. Fetal movement

512. A client with diabetes visits the prenatal clinic at 28 weeks gestation. Which statement is true regarding insulin needs during pregnancy?
A. Insulin requirements moderate as the pregnancy progresses.
B. A decreased need for insulin occurs during the second trimester.
C. Elevations in human chorionic gonadotrophin decrease the need for insulin.
D. Fetal development depends on adequate insulin regulation.

513. A client in the prenatal clinic is assessed to have a blood pressure of 180/96. The nurse should give priority to:
A. Providing a calm environment
B. Obtaining a diet history
C. Administering an analgesic
D. Assessing fetal heart tones

514. A primigravida, age 42, is six weeks pregnant. Based on the client’s age, her infant is at risk for:
A. Down syndrome
B. Respiratory distress syndrome
C. Turner’s syndrome
D. Pathological jaundice

515. A client with a missed abortion at 29 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital. The client will most likely be treated with:
A. Magnesium sulfate
B. Calcium gluconate
C. Dinoprostone (Prostin E.)
D. Bromocrystine (Parlodel).

516. Which statement made by the nurse describes the inheritance pattern of autosomal recessive disorders?
A. An affected newborn has unaffected parents.
B. An affected newborn has one affected parent.
C. Affected parents have a one in four chance of passing on the defective gene.
D. Affected parents have unaffected children who are carriers.

517. A pregnant client, age 32, asks the nurse why her doctor has recommended a serum alpha fetoprotein. The nurse should explain that the doctor has recommended the test:
A. Because it is a state law
B. To detect cardiovascular defects
C. Because of her age
D. To detect neurological defects

518. A client with hypothyroidism asks the nurse if she will still need to take thyroid medication during the pregnancy. The nurse’s response is based on the knowledge that:
A. There is no need to take thyroid medication because the fetus’s thyroid produces a thyroid-stimulating hormone.
B. Regulation of thyroid medication is more difficult because the thyroid gland increases in size during pregnancy.
C. It is more difficult to maintain thyroid regulation during pregnancy due to a slowing of metabolism.
D. Fetal growth is arrested if thyroid medication is continued during pregnancy

519. The nurse is responsible for performing a neonatal assessment on a full-term infant. At one minute, the nurse could expect to find:
A. An apical pulse of 100
B. An absence of tonus
C. Cyanosis of the feet and hands
D. Jaundice of the skin and sclera

520. A client with sickle cell anaemia is admitted to the labour and delivery unit during the first phase of labour. The nurse should anticipate the client’s need for:
A. Supplemental oxygen
B. Fluid restriction
C. Blood transfusion
D. Delivery by Caesarean section

521. An infant who weighs 8 pounds at birth would be expected to weigh how many pounds at one year?
A. 14 pounds
B. 16 pounds
C. 18 pounds
D. 24 pounds

522. A pregnant client with a history of alcohol addiction is scheduled for a nonstress test. The nonstress test:
A. Determines the lung maturity of the fetus
B. Measures the activity of the fetus
C. Shows the effect of contractions on the fetal heart rate
D. Measures the neurological well-being of the fetus

523. Which of the following best describes the Contingency Theory of Leadership?
A. Leaders behaviour influence team members
B. Leaders grasp the whole picture and their respective roles
C. The plan is influenced by the outside force
D. The leader sees the kind of situation, the setting, and their roles

524. Which of the steps is NOT involved in Tuckman’s group formation theory?
A. Accepting
B. Norming
C. Storming
D. Forming

525. Which is not a stage in the Tuckman Theory of contingency?
A. Forming
B. Storming
C. Norming
D. Analysing

526. Which of the following nursing theorists developed a conceptual model based on the belief that all persons should strive to achieve self-care?
A. Martha Rogers
B. Dorothea Orem
C. Florence Nightingale
D. Cister Callista Roy

527. The contingency theory of management moves the manager away from which of the following approaches?
A. No perfect solution
B. One size fits all
C. Interaction of the system with the environment
D. A method of combination of methods that will be most effective in a given situation.

528. Which nursing delivery model is based on a production and efficiency model and stresses a task-orientated approach?
A. Case management
B. Primary nursing
C. Differentiated practice
D. Functional method

529. Clostridium difficile (C-diff) infections can be prevented by:
A. Using hand gels
B. Washing your hands with soap and water
C. Using repellent gowns
D. Limit visiting times

530. Causes of diarrhoea in Clostridium Difficile are:
A. Ulcerative colitis
B. Hashimotos disease
C. Pseudomembranous colitis
D. Crohn’s disease

531. Barrier Nursing for C.diff patient what should you not do?
A. Use of hand gel/ alcohol rub
B. Use gloves
C. Patient has his own set of washers
D. Strict disinfection of patient’s room after isolation

532. Leonor, 72 years old patient is being treated with antibiotics for her UTI. After three days of taking them, she developed diarrhoea with blood stains. What is the most possible reason for this?
A. Antibiotics causes chronic inflammation of the intestine
B. An anaphylactic reaction
C. Antibiotic alters her GI flora which made Clostridium-difficile to multiply
D. She is not taking the antibiotics with food

533. You are caring for a patient in isolation with suspected Clostridium difficile. What are the essential key actions to prevent the spread of infection?
A. Regular hand hygiene and the promotion of the infection prevention link nurse role
B. Encourage the doctors to wear gloves and aprons, to be bare below the elbow and to wash hands with alcohol hand rub. Ask for cleaning to be increased with soap-based products.
C. Seek the infection prevention team to review the patient’s medication chart and provide regular teaching sessions on the 5 moments of hand hygiene. Provide the patient and family with adequate information.
D. Review antimicrobials daily, wash hands with soap and water before and after each contact with the patient, ask for enhanced cleaning with chlorine-based products and use gloves and aprons when disposing of body fluids.

534. When treating patients with clostridium difficile, how should you clean your hands?
A. Use alcohol hand rubs
B. Use soap & water
C. Use hand wipes
D. All of the above

535. What infection control steps should not be taken in a patient with diarrhoea caused by Clostridium Difficile?
A. Isolation of the patient
B. All staff must wear aprons and gloves while attending the patient
C. All staff will be required to wash their hands before and after contact with the patient, their bed linen and soiled items
D. None of the above

536. Patient with clostridium difficile has stools with blood and mucus. due to which condition?
A. Ulcerative colitis
B. Chrons disease
C. Inflammatory bowel disease
D. None of the above

537. Which of the following is NOT a typical characteristic of bacteria?
A. Cell wall
B. Eukaryocyte
C. Spherical
D. Spores

538. For which of the following modes of transmission is good hand hygiene a key preventative measure?
A. Airborne
B. Direct & indirect contact
C. Droplet
D. All of the above

539. 5 moments of hand hygiene include all of the following except:
A. Before Patient Contact
B. Before a clean / aseptic procedure
C. Before Body Fluid Exposure Risk
D. After Patient contact

540. If you were asked to take ‘standard precautions’ what would you expect to be doing?
A. Wearing gloves, aprons and mask when caring for someone in protective isolation
B. Taking precautions when handling blood and ‘high risk’ body fluids so as not to pass on any infection to the patient
C. Using appropriate hand hygiene, wearing gloves and aprons where necessary, disposing of used sharp instruments safely and providing care in a suitably clean environment to protect yourself and the patients
D. Asking relatives to wash their hands when visiting patients in the clinical setting

541. Define standard precaution:
A. The precautions that are taken with all blood and ‘high-risk’ body fluids.
B. The actions that should be taken in every care situation to protect patients and others from infection, regardless of what is known of the patient’s status with respect to infection.
C. It is meant to reduce the risk of transmission of blood borne and other pathogens from both recognized and unrecognized sources.
D. The practice of avoiding contact with bodily fluids, by means of wearing of nonporous articles such as gloves, goggles, and face shields.

542. Except which procedure must all individuals providing nursing care must be competent at?
A. Hand hygiene
B. Use of protective equipment
C. Disposal of waste
D. Aseptic technique

543. Which client has the highest risk for a bacteraemia?
A. Client with a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line
B. Client with a central venous catheter (CVC)
C. Client with an implanted infusion port
D. Client with a peripherally inserted intravenous line

544. In infection control, what is a pathogen?
A. A micro-organism that is capable of causing infection, especially in vulnerable individuals, but not normally in healthy ones.
B. Micro-organisms that are present on or in a person but not causing them any harm.
C. Indigenous microbiota regularly found at an anatomical site.
D. Antibodies recruited by the immune system to identify and neutralize foreign objects like bacteria and viruses.

545. When disposing of waste, what colour bag should be used to dispose of offensive/hygiene waste?
A. Orange
B. Yellow
C. Yellow and black stripe
D. Black

546. Before giving direct care to the patient, you should
A. Wear mask, aprons
B. Wash hands with alchohol rub
C. Handwashing using 6 steps
D. Take all standard precautions

547. What infection is thought to be caused by prions?
A. Leprosy
B. Pneumocystis jirovecii
C. Norovirus
D. Creutzfeldt Jakob disease

548. For which of the following modes of transmission is good hand hygiene a key preventative measure?
A. Airborne
B. Direct contact
C. Indirect contact
D. All of the above

549. If a patient requires protective isolation, which of the following should you advise them to drink?
A. Filtered water only
B. Fresh fruit juice and filtered water
C. Bottled water and tap water
D. long-life fruit juice and filtered water

550. Examples of offensive/hygiene waste which may be sent for energy recovery at energy from waste facilities can include:
A. Stoma or catheter bags - The Management of Waste from health, social and personal care - RCN
B. Unused non-cytotoxic/cytostatic medicines in original packaging
C. Used sharps from treatment using cytotoxic or cytostatic medicines
D. Empty medicine bottles

551. The use of an alcohol-based hand rub for decontamination of hands before and after direct patient contact and clinical care is recommended when:
A. Hands are visibly soiled
B. Caring for patients with vomiting or diarrhoeal illness, regardless of whether or not gloves have been worn
C. Immediately after contact with body fluids, mucous membranes and non-intact skin
D. None of the above

552. You are told a patient is in 'source isolation'. What would you do & why?
A. Isolating a patient so that they don't catch any infections
B. Nursing an individual who is regarded as being particularly vulnerable to infection in such a way as to minimize the transmission of potential pathogens to that person.
C. Nursing a patient who is carrying an infectious agent that may be risk to others in such a way as to minimize the risk of the infection spreading elsewhere in their body.
D. Nurse the patient in isolation, ensure that you wear appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) & adhere to strict hygiene, for the purpose of preventing the spread of organism from that patient to others.

553. If you were told by a nurse at handover to take “standard precautions” what would you expect to be doing?
A. Taking precautions when handling blood & ‘high risk’ body fluids so that you don’t pass on any infection to the patient.
B. Wearing gloves, aprons & mask when caring for someone in protective isolation to protect yourself from infection
C. Asking relatives to wash their hands when visiting patients in the clinical setting
D. Using appropriate hand hygiene, wearing gloves & aprons when necessary, disposing of used sharp instruments safely & providing care in a suitably clean environment to protect yourself & the patients.

554. Under the Yellow Card Scheme you must report the following:
A. Faulty brakes on a wheelchair
B. Suspected side effects to blood factor, except immunoglobulin products
C. Counterfeit or fake medicines or medical devices
D. A and C

555. Where will you put infectious linen?
A. Red plastic bag designed to disintegrate when exposed to heat
B. Red linen bag designed to hold its integrity even when exposed to heat
C. Yellow plastic bag for disposal
D. None of the above

556. What would make you suspect that a patient in your care had a urinary tract infection?
A. The doctor has requested a midstream urine specimen.
B. The patient has a urinary catheter in situ, and the patient's wife states that he seems more forgetful than usual.
C. The patient has spiked a temperature, has a raised white cell count (WCC), has new-onset confusion and the urine in his catheter bag is cloudy.
D. The patient has complained of frequency of faecal elimination and hasn’t been drinking enough.

557. Which of the following would indicate an infection?
A. Hot, sweaty, a temperature of 36.5°C, and bradycardic.
B. Temperature of 38.5°C, shivering, tachycardia and hypertensive.
C. Raised WBC, elevated blood glucose and temperature of 36.0°C.
D. Hypotensive, cold and clammy, and bradycardic.

558. A client was diagnosed to have infection. What is not a sign or symptom of infection?
A. A temperature of more than 38°C
B. Warm skin
C. Chills and sweats
D. Aching muscles

559. Mrs. Smith is receiving blood transfusion after a total hip replacement operation. After 15 minutes, you went back to check her vital signs and she complained of high temperature and loin pain. This may indicate:
A. Renal Colic
B. Urine Infection
C. Common adverse reaction
D. Serious adverse reaction

560. As an infection prevention and control protocol, linens soiled with infectious bodily fluids should be disposed of in what means?
A. Placed in yellow plastic bag to be disposed of
B. Placed in dissolvable red linen bag and washed at high temperature
C. Placed in yellow linen bag, and washed at high temperature
D. Placed in red plastic bag to be incinerated at high temperature

561. What percentage of patients in hospital in England, at the time of the 2011 National Prevalence survey, had an infection?
A. 4.6%
B. 6.4%
C. 14%
D. 16%

562. How to take an infected sheet for washing according to UK standard
A. Take infected linen in yellow bag for disposal
B. Take in red plastic bag, that disintegrates in high temperature
C. Use red linen bag that allows washing in high temperatures
D. Use a white bag

563. There has been an outbreak of the Norovirus in your clinical area. Majority of your staff have rang in sick. Which of the following is incorrect?
A. Do not allow visitors to come in until after 48h of the last episode
B. Tally the episodes of diarrhoea and vomiting
C. Staff who has the virus can only report to work 48h after last episode
D. Ask one of the staff who is off-sick to do an afternoon shift on same day

564. One of your patients in bay 1 having episodes of vomiting in the last 2 days now. The Norovirus alert has been enforced. The other patients look concerned that he may spread infection. What is your next action in the situation?
A. Seek the infection control nurse’s advice regarding isolation
B. Give the patient antiemetic to control the vomiting
C. Offer the patient a lot of drinks to rehydrated
D. Tell the other patients that vomiting will not cause infection to others

565. Infected linen should be placed in:
A. Red plastic bag that disintegrates at high temperature
B. Red linen bag that can withstand high temperatures
C. White linen bag that can withstand high temperatures
D. Yellow plastic bag that cannot withstand high temperatures.

566. When do you wear clean gloves?
A. Assisting with bathing
B. Feeding a client
C. When there is broken skin on hand
D. Any activity which includes physical touch of a client

567. The nurse needs to validate which of the following statements pertaining to an assigned client?
A. The client has a hard, raised, red lesion on his right hand.
B. A weight of 185 lbs. is recorded in the chart
C. The client reported an infected toe
D. The client's blood pressure is 124/70. It was 118/68 yesterday.

568. Which bag do you place infected linen?
A. water-soluble alginate polythene bag before being placed in the appropriate linen bag, no more than ¾ full
B. orange waste bag, before being placed in the appropriate linen bag, no more than ¾ full
C. white linen bag, after sorting, no more than ¾ full
D. None of the above

569. Under the Yellow Card Scheme you must report the following: I. Faulty brakes on a wheelchair
II. Suspected side effects to blood factor, except immunoglobulin products
III. Counterfeit or fake medicines or medical devices
IV. Ascites and increased vascular pattern on the skin
A. II only
B. I and III only
C. I and IV only
D. IV only

570. For which type of waste should orange bags be used?
A. Waste that requires disposal by incineration(YELLOW)
B. Offensive/hygiene waste(YELLOW/BLACK)
C. Waste which may be ‘treated(ORANGE)
D. Offensive waste

571. Jenny, a nursing assistant working with you in an Elderly Care Ward is showing signs of norovirus infection. Which of the following will you ask her to do next?
A. Go home and avoid direct contact with other people and preparing food for others until at least 48 hours after her symptoms have disappeared
B. Disinfect any surfaces or objects that could be contaminated with the virus
C. Flush away any infected faeces or vomit in the toilet and clean the surrounding toilet area
D. Avoid eating raw oysters

572. Mrs X had developed Steven-Johnson syndrome whilst on Carbamazepine. She is now being transferred for the ITU to a bay in the Medical ward. Which patient can Mrs X share a baby with?
A. a patient with MRSA
B. a patient with diarrhoea
C. a patient with a fever of unknown origin
D. a patient with Stephen Johnson Syndrome

573. Which of the following are not signs of a speed shock?
A. Flushed face
B. Headache and dizziness
C. Tachycardia and fall in blood pressure
D. Peripheral oedema

574. Which is not a sign or symptom of speed shock?
A. Headache
B. A tight feeling in the chest
C. Irregular pulse
D. Cyanosis

575. While giving an IV infusion your patient develops speed shock. What is not a sign and symptom of this?
A. Circulatory collapse
B. Peripheral oedema
C. Facial flushing
D. Headache

576. Signs of hypovolemic shock would include all except:
A. Restlessness, anxiety or confusion
B. Shallow respiratory rate, becoming weak
C. Rising pulse rate
D. Low urine output of <0 .5="" and="" cyanotic="" div="" e.="" h="" kg="" later="" ml="" pale="" pallor="" skin="" sweating="">

577. What are the signs and symptoms of shock during early stage I. hypoxemia
II. tachycardia and hyperventilation
III. hypotension
IV. acidosis
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I, II and III only
D. All of the above

578. All but one are signs of anaphylaxis:
A. Itchy skin or a raised, red skin rash
B. Swollen eyes, lips, hands and feet
C. Hypertension and tachycardia
D. Abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting

579. Which of the following are signs of anaphylaxis?
A. Swelling of tongue and rashes
B. Dyspnoea, hypotension and tachycardia
C. Hypertension and hyperthermia
D. Cold and clammy skin

580. You were asked by the nursing assistant to see Claudia whom you have recently given trimetophrim 200 mgs PO because of urine infection. When you arrived at her bedside, she was short of breath, wheezy and some red patches evident over her face. Which of the following actions will you do if you are suspecting anaphylaxis?
A. Call for help and give oxygen
B. Give oxygen and salbutamol nebs if prescribed and call for help
C. Give oxygen, administer adrenaline 500 mcg IM, give salbutamol nebs if prescribed and call for help
D. Call for help, give oxygen, administer adrenaline 500 mcg IM, give salbutamol nebs if prescribed.

581. A patient has collapsed with an anaphylactic reaction. What symptoms would you expect to see?
A. The patient will have a low blood pressure (hypotensive) and will have a fast heart rate (tachycardia) usually associated with skin and mucosal changes.
B. The patient will have a high blood pressure (hypertensive) and will have a fast heart rate (tachycardia).
C. The patient will quickly find breathing very difficult because of compromise to their airway or circulation. This is accompanied by skin and mucosal changes.
D. The patient will experience a sense of impending doom, hyperventilate and be itchy all over.

582. A gravida III para II is admitted to the labor unit. Vaginal exam reveals that the client’s cervix is 8cm dilated, with complete effacement. The priority nursing diagnosis at this time is:
A. Alteration in coping related to pain
B. Potential for injury related to precipitate delivery
C. Alteration in elimination related to anesthesia
D. Potential for fluid volume deficit related to NPO status

583. After lumbar puncture, the patient experienced shock. What is the aetiology behind it?
A. Increased ICP
B. Headache
C. Side effect of medications
D. CSF leakage

584. A full-term male has hypospadias. Which statement describes hypospadias?
A. The urethral opening is absent
B. The urethra opens on the top side of the penis
C. The urethral opening is enlarged
D. The urethra opens on the under side of the penis

585. Leonor, 72 years old patient is being treated with antibiotics for her UTI. After three days of taking them, she developed diarrhoea with blood stains. What is the most possible reason for this?
A. Antibiotics causes chronic inflammation of the intestine
B. An anaphylactic reaction
C. Antibiotic alters her GI flora which made Clostridium-difficile to multiply
D. She is not taking the antibiotics with food

586. The following are signs & symptoms of hypovolemic shock, except:
A. Confusion
B. Rapid heart rate
C. Strong pulse
D. Decrease Blood Pressure

587. Signs and symptoms of septic shock?
A. Tachycardia, hypertension, normal WBC, non pyrexial
B. Tachycardia, hypotension, increased WBC, pyrexial
C. Tachycardia, increased WBC, normotension, non pyrexial
D. Decreased heart rate, decreased blood pressure, normal WBC and pyrexial

588. Which of the following is not a criteria for anaphylactic reaction:
A. Sudden onset and rapid progression of symptoms
B. Life threatening airway and/ or breathing and/or circulation problems
C. Skin and/or mucosal changes (flushing, urticaria and angioedema)
D. Skin and mucosal changes only

589. Mrs X was taken to the Accident and Emergency Unit due to anaphylactic shock. The treatment for Mrs X will depend on the following except:
A. Location
B. Number of Responders
C. Equipment and Drugs available
D. Triage system in the A&E

590. Mark, 48 years old, has been exhibiting signs and symptoms of anaphylactic reaction. You want to make sure that he is in a comfortable position. Which of the following should you consider?
A. Mark should be sat up if he is experiencing airway and breathing problems.
B. Mark should be lying on his back if he is assessed to be breathing and unconscious.
C. Mark should be sat up if his blood pressure is too low.
D. Mark should be encouraged to stand up if he feels faint.

591. The following are ways to remove factors that trigger anaphylactic reaction except for one.
A. It is not recommended to make the patient should not be forced to vomit after food-induced anaphylaxis.
B. Definitive treatment should not be delayed if removing a trigger is not feasible.
C. Any drug suspected of causing an anaphylactic reaction should be stopped.
D. After a bee sting, do not touch the stinger for about a maximum of 3 hours.

592. Mrs Smith has been assessed to have a cardiac arrest after anaphylactic reaction to a medication. Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR) was started immediately. According to the Resuscitation Council UK, which of the following statements is true?
A. Intramuscular route administration of adrenaline is always recommended during cardiac arrest after anaphylactic reaction.
B. Intramuscular route for adrenaline is not recommended during cardiac arrest after anaphylactic reaction.
C. Adrenaline can be administered intradermally during cardiac arrest after anaphylactic reaction.
D. None of the Above

593. An Eight year old girl with learning disabilities is admitted for a minor surgery, she is very restless and agitated and wants her mother to stay with her, what will you do?
A. Advice the mother to stay till she settles.
B. Act according to company policy
C. Tell her you will take care of the child
D. Inform the Doctor

594. What is meant by ‘Gillick competent’?
A. Children under the age of 12 who are believed to have enough intelligence, competence and understanding to fully appreciate what's involved in their treatment.
B. Children under the age of 16 who are believed to have enough intelligence, competence and understanding to fully appreciate what's involved in their treatment
C. Children under the age of 18 who are believed not to have enough intelligence, competence and understanding to fully appreciate what's involved in their treatment.
D. Children under the lawful age of consent who are believed not to have enough intelligence, competence and understanding to

595. When communicating with children, what most important factor should the nurse take into consideration?
A. Developmental level
B. Physical development
C. Nonverbal cues
D. Parental involvement

596. Normal heart rate for 1 to 2 years old?
A. 80 - 140 beats per minute
B. 80 - 110 beats per minute
C. 75 - 115 beats per minute
D. None of the above

597. Which of the following is an average heart rate of a 1-2 year old child?
A. 110-120 bpm
B. 60-100 bpm
C. 140-160 bpm
D. 80-120 bpm

598. You are assisting a doctor who is trying to assess and collect information from a child who does not seem to understand all that the doctor is telling and is restless. What will be your best response?
A. Stay quiet and remain with the doctor
B. Interrupt the doctor and ask the child the questions
C. Remain with the doctor and try to gain the confidence of the child and politely assess the child's level of understanding and help the doctor with the information he is looking for
D. Make the child quiet & ask his mother to stay with him

599. Recognition of the unwell child is crucial. The following are all signs and symptoms of respiratory distress in children EXCEPT:
A. Lying supine
B. Nasal flaring
C. Intercostal and sternal recession
D. adopting an upright position

600. Which of the following IS NOT one of the four basic criteria that denote the terminal phase of life?
A. The patient is semi-comatose
B. The patient is unable to get out of bed
C. The patient is unable to verbally communicate
D. The patient is only able to take sips of fluid