701 - 800 Solved Medical Nursing MCQ Test Questions Bank

701. The client who is burned is drooling and having difficulty swallowing.
Which action will the nurse take first?
Select One:
A. Assesses level of consciousness and pupillary reactions
B. Auscultates breath sounds over the trachea and mainstem bronchi
C. Ascertains the time food or liquid was last consumed
D. None of the above

702. A patient is brought to emergency department immediately following a smoke inhalation injury.
The initial nursing action is to prepare the patient to receive:
Select one:
A. Oxygen through nasal cannula
B. 100% humidified oxygen by face mask
C. Endotracheal intubation and provide 100% oxygen via a ventilator
D. None of the above

703. Nasotracheal or endotracheal intubation is instituted in burn patients who have:
Select one:
A. Symptoms of hypoxia secondary to carbon monoxide poisoning
B. Thermal burn injuries to the face, neck, or airway
C. Respiratory distress to inelastic eschar formation around the chest
D. None of the above

704. The condition that occurs when air escapes from a laceration in the lung itself and enters the pleural space is known as?
Select one:
A. Traumatic pneumothorax
B. Spontaneous pneumothorax
C. Tension pneumothorax
D. None of the above

705. The principles to follow when changing a surgical dressing of a patient is to:
Select one:
A. Protect yourself from microorganisms in the wound
B. Keep the sterile field free from microorganisms
C. Reduce the number of opportunistic microorganisms to a minimum
D. None of the above

706. The nurse can best explain positive Pratt’s sign of a person suffering from Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT) to a junior Nurse by saying there is
Select one:
A. Pain that occur with squeezing the calf
B. Calf pain associated with dorsiflexion of the leg
C. Pain with abduction of the limb
D. None of the above

707. Urinary function during the acute phase of spinal cord injury is maintained with:
Select one:
A. Insertion of a suprapubic catheter
B. An indwelling catheter
C. Intermittent catheterization
D. None of the above

708. A patient with endocrine disorder has weight loss and tachycardia.
The nurse determines that which of the following glands is most likely responsible for these symptoms:
Select one:
A. Adrenal cortex
B. Thyroid
C. Parathyroid
D. None of the above

709. Which of the following signs will indicate to you that a patient is dehydrated?
I. The patient will complain of
II. Cracked lips
III. Cold and clammy skin
IV. Decrease urinary output
Select one:
A. II, II and IV
B. I, II, III and IV
C. I, II and IV
D. None of the above

710. A nurse is caring for a patient who sustained multiple fractures in a motor vehicle accident 12 hours ago.
The patient develops dyspneaa, tachycardia, and mental confusion, and the nurse suspect fat embolism.
The most appropriate initial action of the nurse is to:
Select one:
A. Reassess the vital signs
B. Place the patient in a supine position
C. Place the patient in a Fowler’s position
D. None of the above

711. When a patient is admitted to the emergency department following a head injury, the nurses’ first priority in management of the patient is:
Select one:
A. Establishing IV access with a large-bore catheter
B. Determine the presence of increased ICP
C. Maintaining cervical spine precautions
D. None of the above

712. When caring for a patient diagnose with intestinal obstructions, the following are to be considered in his care EXCEPT?
Select one:
A. Pain management
B. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance
C. Antiemetics
D. None of the above

713. The region in the brain stem responsible for maintaining consciousness and awakening from sleep is the?
Select one:
A. Reticular activating system
B. Thalamus
C. Pyramids
D. None of the above

714. The nurse is caring for a patient following thyroidectomy.
The patient tells the nurse that she/he is concerned because of voice hoarseness.
The patient asks the nurse if the hoarseness will subside.
The nurse most appropriate tells the patient that the hoarseness:
Select one:
A. Indicates nerve damage
B. Will worsen before it subsides, which may take 6months
C. Is normal during this time and will subside
D. None of the above

715. One clinical manifestation that the nurse would expect to find during the emergent phase in a patient with a full-thickness burn over the lower half of the body is:
Select one:
A. Severe pain
B. Fever
C. Intense thirst
D. None of the above

716. The client has a large burned area on the right arm.
The burned area appears pink, has blisters, and is very painful.
How will the nurse categorize this injury?
Select One:
A. Partial-thickness superficial
B. Partial-thickness deep
C. Full-thickness
D. None of the above

717. During the inhalation phase in ventricular interdependence in people with constrictive pericarditis, the negative thoracic pressure causes?
Select one:
A. Right ventricular bulging
B. Right atria bulging
C. Left ventricular bulging
D. None of the above

718. A client who was burned has crackles and a respiratory rate of 40/min and is coughing up blood-tinged sputum.
What action will the nurse take first?
Select One:
A. Place the client in an upright position
B. Monitor urine output
C. Perform chest physiotherapy
D. None of the above

719. The nurse is caring for a 12-year-old client with appendicitis.
The client’s mother is a Jehovah’s Witness and refuses to sign the blood permit.
What nursing action is most appropriate?
Select one:
A. Encourage the mother to reconsider
B. Notify the physician of the mother’s refusal
C. Explain the consequences without treatment
D. None of the above

720. A nurse has developed a plan of care for a postoperative patient following thyroidectomy and formulates nursing diagnosis of Risk for Ineffective Breathing Pattern.
Which of the following nursing intervention will the nurse include in the plan of care?
Select one:
A. Monitor neck circumference every 4 hours
B. Encourage deep breathing exercise and vigorous coughing exercise
C. Maintain a pressure dressing on the operative site
D. None of the above

721. Which of the following measure will increase the chance of venous return?
Select one:
A. Taking pressure of the calves
B. Aiding venous return through the wearing of stockings
C. Preoperative administration of estrogen
D. None of the above

722. Aqueous humour drains from anterior chamber into the?
Select one:
A. Vitreous body
B. Canal of Schlemm
C. Lacrimal duct
D. None of the above

723. A priority nursing diagnosis for a patient who has undergone cardiac surgery is?
Select one:
A. Alteration in renal perfusion related to decrease cardiac output (potential)
B. Alteration in fluid volume and electrolytes balance related to decrease blood volume (potential)
C. Decrease cardiac output related to blood loss
D. None of the above

724. The nurse will perform which of these interventions for haemorrhage from wound site after surgery?
Select one:
A. Serve prescribe medication for the wound
B. Change dressings and soiled linen
C. Reinforce dressings and observe patient
D. None of the above

725. The impudence to the smooth flow of blood from the right ventricle to the pulmonary trunk could be due to faulty or stenosis of?
Select one:
A. Aortic valve
B. Tricuspid valve
C. Mitral valve
D. None of the above

726. Doctor Boafo suspected oral cancer for a patient admitted at the ward.
He ordered for further investigations to confirm the diagnose.
The nurse understands that the diagnosis of oral cancer is confirmed with?
Select one:
A. Gram Stain
B. Biopsy
C. Oral washings for cytology
D. None of the above

727. Master Daniel reported to the emergency unit with complains of severe abdominal pains pointing to the right lower quadrant.
Nurse Ann will be more careful in the immediate care by avoiding which of these actions before the diagnosis is made?
Select one:
A. Enemas and sips of water
B. Enemas and analgesics
C. Complete assessment including the lower abdominal palpation
D. None of the above

728. A nurse is monitoring a patient with Graves’ for signs thyrotoxic crisis.
Which of the following signs and symptoms if noted in a patient will alert the nurse to the presence of this crisis?
Select one:
A. Fever and tachycardia
B. Low-grade fever and tachycardia
C. Agitation and bradycardia
D. None of the above

729. Signs and symptoms that indicate to the nurse that a tension pneumothorax is developing in a patient with chest trauma include:
Select one:
A. Muffled and distant heart sounds with decreasing blood pressure
B. Decreased movement and diminished breath sounds on the affected side
C. Severe respiratory distress and tracheal deviation
D. None of the above

730. Sammy Gyamfi, an unconscious patient admitted to the emergency ward following a road traffic accident.
Fractures of the lower ribs are associated with injury to which of the following organs?
Select one:
A. Spleen and liver
B. Kidneys and liver
C. Lungs and heart
D. None of the above

731. Preoperative instructions for the patient scheduled for a subtotal thyroidectomy includes teaching the patient:
Select one:
A. That coughing should be avoided to prevent pressure on the incision
B. How to support the head with the hands when moving
C. That any tingling around the lips or in the fingers after surgery are expected and temporary
D. None of the above

732. A male patient is admitted to the healthcare facility for treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
Which nursing diagnosis is most important for this patient?
Select One:
A. Anxiety related to actual threat to health status
B. Activity intolerance related to fatigue
C. Impaired gas exchange related to airflow obstruction
D. None of the above

733. A patient has a complete spinal cord transaction at the C7 level.
During the acute period, the nurse would expect the patient to have:
Select one:
A. Flaccid tetraplegia with loss of pressure sensation
B. Paraplegia with a flaccid paralysis
C. Total hemiplegia with sensory and motor loss
D. None of the above

734. The first aid treatment the nurse would give to the client with epistaxis includes the following EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. Grip the tip of the nose between thumb and forefinger
B. Let client sit up and gently throw the head backward
C. Apply cold compress to the bridge of the nose
D. None of the above

735. An obese patient who had a laparotomy is complaining of symptoms of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). One of the signs of this condition is?
Select one:
A. Superficial veins appear enlarged and prominent
B. Leg size diameter may be reduced
C. Onset is sudden
D. None of the above

736. Dr. Jones prescribes albuterol sulfate (Proventil) for a patient with newly diagnose asthma.
When teaching the patient about this drug, the nurse should explain that it may cause:
Select One:
A. Nasal congestion
B. Nervousness
C. Lethargy
D. None of the above

737. Intraoperative and postoperative aspiration could be prevented through preoperative food restrictions (fasting).
Whiles waiting to have her elective epigastric hernia repair, Karzai unfortunately took porridge.
After how many hours can she have her surgery done?
Select one:
A. 4 hours
B. 5 hours
C. 6 hours
D. None of the above

738. A male adult patient on mechanical ventilation is receiving pancuronium bromide (Pavulon), 0.01 mg/kg I.V. as needed.
Which assessment finding indicates that the patient needs another pancuronium dose?
Select One:
A. Fighting the ventilator
B. Finger movement
C. Leg movement
D. None of the above

739. A patient has a 20% total body surface area deep partial –thickness burn to the right anterior chest and entire right arm.
It is most important that the nurse assess the patient for:
Select one:
A. Presence of pain
B. Swelling of the arm
C. Presence of pulses in the arms
D. None of the above

740. Which of the following does NOT result in increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in patients with brain tumours?
Select one:
A. Pituitary dysfunction
B. Vasogenic edema
C. Haemorrhage
D. None of the above

741. A nurse is monitoring a patient with Grave’s disease for signs of thyrotoxic crisis (thyroid storm).
which of the following signs and symptoms, if noted in the patient will alert the nurse to the presence of this crisis?
Select one:
A. Fever and tachycardia
B. Pallor and tachycardia
C. Agitation and bradycardia
D. None of the above

742. The nurse estimated that Gyan has compound fracture.
A compound fracture is one in which:
Select one:
A. The bone has splintered into several fragments
B. One side of the bone is broken and other side bent
C. There is a break in the skin and underlying soft tissue
D. None of the above

743. During the assessment of Amoasi with a spinal cord injury, the nurse determines that the patient has a poor cough with diaphragmatic breathing.
Based on this finding, the nurse:
Select one:
A. Explains to the patient that mechanical ventilation will be necessary to maintain respiratory function
B. Assesses lung sounds and respiratory parameters 1-2 hourly
C. Uses tracheal suctioning to remove secretions
D. None of the above

744. The nurse provides wound care for a client 48 hours after a burn injury.
To achieve the desired outcome of the procedure, which nursing action will be carried out first?
Select One:
A. Removes loose nonviable tissue
B. Applies silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) ointment
C. Covers the area with an elastic wrap
D. None of the above

745. A patient with a major burn is admitted to emergency department.
The nurse anticipates that which of the following medication route will be prescribed for analgesics for the patient?
Select one:
A. Intramuscular
B. Intravenous
C. Subcutaneous
D. None of the above

746. Nurse Gifty is conducting a home safety class.
It is most important for the nurse to include which information in the teaching plan?
Select One:
A. Keep a smoke detector in each bedroom.
B. Use space heaters instead of gas heaters.
C. Use carbon monoxide detectors only in the garage.
D. None of the above

747. Nurse Prince is preparing a client for elective surgery.
Which of following is the best time of instruction for preoperative teaching/education?
Select one:
A. Afternoon or evening before the surgery
B. Relatively close to the time of surgery
C. Morning or 4 hours before surgery
D. None of the above

748. A nurse is caring for a burn patient in a protective isolation.
Which of the following is not a component of protective isolation?
Select one:
A. Wearing protective mast, cap, shoe covers, gloves, scrub clothes, and plastic apron
B. Strict hand washing
C. Wearing gloves and a gown only when caring for the patient
D. None of the above

749. The nurse should teach the community that a minor burn injury could be caused by what common occurrence?
Select One:
A. Use of space heaters
B. Use of sunscreen agents
C. Cooking with a microwave oven
D. None of the above

750. The Virchow’s triad plays a significant role in the development of deep vein thrombosis. They include: I. Hypercoagulability of blood II. Drug usage III. Venous stasis IV. Vessel wall injury
Select one:
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. I, III and IV
D. None of the above

751. The T-tube in the common bile duct after choledechostomy is to?
Select one:
A. Provide a means of elevating the potency of the bile duct
B. Allow bile to drain until sufficient healing occurs
C. Permit drainage of excess fluid from the surgical site
D. None of the above

752. A patient has a nursing diagnosis of Altered Cerebral Tissue Perfusion related to cerebral edema.
An appropriate nursing intervention for the patient is:
Select one:
A. Clustering nursing activities to provide periods of uninterrupted rest
B. Maintaining hyperventilation to a partial pressure of carbon dioxide of 15-20 mmHg
C. Avoiding positioning the patient with neck and hip flexion
D. None of the above

753. Amoasi, fell with his buttocks and he was rushed to the emergency unit.
Assessment revealed fracture of the spine which has resulted in an incomplete spinal cord injury.
An initial incomplete spinal cord injury often results in complete cord damage because of:
Select one:
A. Continued trauma to the cord resulting from damage to stabilizing ligaments
B. Infarction and necrosis of the cord caused by edema, hemorrhage, and metabolites
C. Mechanical transaction of the cord by sharp vertebral bone fragments after the initial injury
D. None of the above

754. A pre-operative patient expresses anxiety about upcoming surgery.
Which response of the nurse would stimulate further discussion between the patient and the nurse?
Select one:
A. Let me tell you about the amount of pain you can expect
B. If it is any help, anyone is nervous before surgery
C. Can you share with me your fears about surgery?
D. None of the above

755. A patient complains of severe pains in the wound, two days after surgery.
The nurse should first:
Select one:
A. Take the patient’s vital signs
B. Find out when the last analgesic was given
C. Administer the prescribed prn analgesic
D. None of the above

756. On auscultation, nurse Boatemaa knows which finding suggests a right pneumothorax?
Select One:
A. Bilateral inspiratory and expiratory crackles
B. Bilateral pleural friction rub
C. Absence of breaths sound in the right thorax
D. None of the above

757. Which of the following interventions below cause lyses of the clot formed within a vein or an artery?
Select one:
A. Thrombolytic
B. Adjuvant
C. Anticoagulation
D. None of the above

758. In patient diagnosed with appendicitis the nurse best assess positive Dunphy’s sign by?
Select one:
A. Allowing the patient to cough
B. Palpate the right iliac region whiles he is on lie on the left
C. Pressing the Mcburney’s point to illicit rebound tenderness
D. None of the above

759. In constrictive pericarditis,the inflammation of the pericardium is characterized by all the following EXCEPT?
Select one:
A. Scarring
B. Kussmaul's sign
C. Contracture
D. None of the above

760. The nurse uses topical gentamicin sulfate (Garamycin) on a client’s burn injury.
Which laboratory value will the nurse monitor?
Select One:
A. Sodium
B. Creatinine
C. Magnesium level
D. None of the above

761. The initial cause of hypovolemia during the emergent phase of burn injury is?
Select one:
A. Decreased vascular oncotic pressure
B. Loss of sodium to the interstitium
C. Increased capillary permeability
D. None of the above

762. Which of the following diet would be appropriate for a client with ulcerative colitis?
Select one:
A. High fibre, low protein
B. High carbohydrate, low sodium
C. Low residue, high protein
D. None of the above

763. A nurse is caring for a patient who had above knee amputation 2 days age.
The residual limb was wrapped with an elastic compression bandage and has fallen off.
The nurse immediately:
Select one:
A. Rewraps the stump with an elastic compression bandage
B. Applies ice to the site
C. Applies a sterile dressing and elevates it on pillow
D. None of the above

764. The nurse can best explain positive Pratt’s sign of a person suffering from Deep Vein Thrombosis to a junior Nurse by saying there is?
Select one:
A. Calf pain associated with dorsiflexion of the leg
B. Pain with abduction of the limb
C. Pain that occur with squeezing the calf
D. None of the above

765. A serious complication of malaria is
A. Anaemia and haemorrhage
B. Black water fever
C. Congested lung
D. Impaired peristalsis

766. Which of the following are the common types of chronic pain?
I.Pain with obvious on – going peripheral pathology
II.Chronic benign pain that may have peripheral or central pathology
III.Pain that subsides and gradually disappears
IV.Recurrent acute pain
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV

767. To reduce the symptoms of sprue, the patient should be advised to avoid
A. Broad beans
B. Maize
C. Soya beans
D. Wheat

768. A patient on Lasix and Digoxin should be observed for symptoms of electrolytes depletion caused by
A. Continuous dyspepsia
B. Diuretic therapy
C. Inadequate oral intake
D. Sodium restriction

769. An important nursing responsibility after intravenous pyelogram is to
A. Assess the patient for flank pain
B. Encourage extra oral fluid intake
C. Observe urine for remaining contrast material
D. Encourage ambulation 2 to 3 hours after the study

770. The nurse encourages strict diabetic control in the patient prone to diabetic nephropathy knowing that the renal tissue changes that may occur in this condition include
A. Uric acid calculi and nephrolithiasis
B. Renal sugar – crystal calculi and cyst
C. Lipid deposits in the glomeruli and nephrons
D. Thickening of the glomerular basement membrane and glomerulosclerosis.

771. Clinical features of hypokalaemia include
A. Apathy, weakness, abdominal distension
B. Oedema, bounding pulse, confusion
C. Spasms, diarrhoea, irregular pulse rate
D. Sunken eyeballs, Kussmauls breathing, thirst

772. A patient with gastric ulcer is put on antibacterial agents. The nurse should explain to the patient that these are ordered to
A. Augment the immune response
B. Potentiate the effect of antacids
C. Reduce hydrochloric acid secretion
D. Treat Helicobacter pylori infection

773. To prevent pulmonary embolus in a patient on bed rest, the nurse should
A. Encourage deep breathing and coughing exercise
B. Limit the patient’s fluid intake
C. Massage the legs twice daily
D. Teach the patient to move the legs when in bed

774. Conditions that result in decreased serum albumin will result in:
A. Decreased hydrostatic pressure with pressure shift from the interstitium to the vasculature
B. Increased hydrostatic pressure with plasma shift from vasculature to the interstitium
C. Increased oncotic pressure with plasma shift from the interstitium to the vasculature
D. Decreased oncotic pressure with plasma shift from vasculature to the interstitium

775. A client with pyrexia would demonstrate:
Select One:
A. Elevated blood pressure
B. Increased pulse rate
C. Precordial pain
D. None of the above

776. A client in uraemia will have all the following except:
Select One:
A. Spider haemangioma
B. Nausea and vomiting
C. Hiccups and anorexia
D. None of the above

777. A client is admitted with pneumothorax and therefore during assessment, the nurse should expect dyspnoea and:
Select One:
A. Hematemesis
B. Increased chest motion
C. Unilateraol chest pain
D. None of the above

778. Dermatologic symptoms of Cushing’s Syndrome would include:
Select One:
A. Increased sweating
B. Generalised hyperpigmentation
C. Antecubital space
D. None of the above

779. In preparation for discharge after surgery, the nurse should advise the patient regarding:
Select One:
A. The need to call the hospital or clinical unit to report any abnormal signs or symptoms
B. A time frame for when physical activities can be resumed
C. The rationale for abstinence from sexual intercourse for 4 – 6 weeks
D. None of the above

780. The perioperative nurse’s primary responsibility for the care of the patient undergoing surgery is:
Select One:
A. Developing an individualised plan of nursing care for the patient
B. Ensuring that the patient has been assessed for safe administration of anaesthesia
C. Carrying out specific tasks related of surgical policies and procedures
D. None of the above

781. Which of the under listed is a function of the pleural fluid?
Select One:
A. Holds the visceral and parietal pleural membranes together
B. Increases diffusion rates in the lungs
C. Prevents the lungs from overinflating
D. None of the above

782. In a patient suffering from cholelithiasis, the nurse should interpret his temperature elevation and white blood cell count as probably an indication of:
Select One:
A. Inflammation
B. Dehydration
C. Shock
D. None of the above

783. A nurse noted that, the drug which has been prescribed for her patient contains potassium. Before administering a medication containing potassium, an important nursing intervention is to check the patient’s:
Select One:
A. Pulse
B. Blood pressure
C. Urine output
D. None of the above

784. A nursing intervention for a patient with severe anaemia of chronic disease includes:
Select One:
A. Teaching self – injection of erythropoietin
B. Monitoring urine intake and output
C. Instructions on high iron intake
D. None of the above

785. Which of the following in a patient with liver cirrhosis can be directly related to increased pressure in the portal system? I. Dyspepsia II. Gynecomastia III. Splenomegaly IV. Purpura V. Ascites
Select One:
A. I, III and V
B. IV and V
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

786. The nurse would expect that a patient with Von Willebrand’s disease undergoing surgery would be treated with administration of V WF and:
Select One:
A. Thrombin
B. Factor VIII
C. Factor VII
D. None of the above

787. A flat x – ray could reveal which of the following about the kidneys?
Select One:
A. Hypoperfusion of the kidneys
B. Enlargement due to hydronephrosis
C. Renal calculi
D. None of the above

788. In patients with diabetes insipidus, the specific gravity of urine is:
Select One:
A. Low
B. Normal
C. High
D. None of the above

789. The right ventricles of the heart acts as a pump for the:
Select One:
A. Pulmonary circulation
B. Systemic circulation
C. Coronary circulation
D. None of the above

790. During the oliguric phase of acute renal failure, the nurse monitors the patient for:
Select One:
A. Urine with high specific gravity and low sodium concentration
B. Pulmonary oedema and electrical changes in cardiac activity
C. Hypernatraemia and Central Nervous System
D. None of the above

791. Ms. Selena is a patient with hypernatremia. Which of the following IV solutions would the nurse administer for a patient with hypernatraemia?
Select One:
A. 3% saline
B. 0.33% saline
C. Ringers Lactate solution
D. None of the above

792. Conditions that result in decreased serum albumin will result in:
Select One:
A. Increased oncotic pressure with plasma shifts from the interstitium to the vasculature
B. Decreased hydrostatic pressure with pressure shifts from the interstitium to the vasculature
C. Decreased oncotic pressure with plasma shifts from the vasculature to the interstitium
D. None of the above

793. Mr. Andrews Fofo, 35 year old driver has been diagnosed of gonorrhoea. Which of the following medications would be a first line treatment for his condition?
Select one:
A. Ceftriaxone alone.
B. Benzathine Penicillin G.
C. Azithromycin plus ceftriaxone.
D. None of the above

794. Madam Ama Dorse 60-year-old trader reported to your facillity with morning stiffness in her hips and shoulders. She is diagnosed with polymyalgia rheumatica. Which of the following medications is first-line treatment for her condition?
Select one:
A. Methotrexate.
B. Oral prednisone.
C. Indomethacin.
D. None of the above

795. Madam Afua Brugya, 57 year old health worker, during a routine check up visit to the hospital showed clinical manifestations of metabolic acidosis. The following are among the manifestations EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. Increased blood pressure.
B. Dysrhythmias.
C. Drowsiness.
D. None of the above

796. The Nurse is planning care for Madam Kusa who has just been rushed to the Accident and Emergency, and diagnosed of Myocardial infarction. The Nurse must prepare to administer:
Select one:
A. Tablet soluble Aspirin, 300mg stat.
B. IM Pethidine 50mg stat.
C. IV Nitroglycerine 2.5mg stat.
D. None of the above

797. The physical examination and laboratory tests of a patient with severe malaria is likely to show:
Select one:
A. Splenomegaly.
B. Erythrocytosis.
C. Elevated sedimentation rate.
D. None of the above

798. Osteomalacia is common in women of child–bearing age. Choose from the options below the BEST way to prevent this disease from occurring.
Select one:
A. Daily intake of ascorbic acid.
B. Frequent intake of iodized salt.
C. Daily intake of 400IU of vitamin D.
D. None of the above

799. Mr. Kwesi Afrani was brought to the OPD in an unconscious state. The initial method of assessing his level of consciousness is by:
Select one:
A. Checking his response to verbal stimulant.
B. Monitoring his reaction to painful stimuli.
C. Examining the pupillary reaction to light.
D. None of the above

800. Rickets is associated with all the following in a child EXCEPT the child: I. Becomes very ill II. Becomes flabby and irritable III. Will be prone to tetany and laryngeal stridor IV. Will have Wernicke’s encephalopathy
Select one:
A. I, II and III.
B. I, III and IV.
C. II and III.
D. None of the above