301. Which of the following can be found in the saliva?
A. Amylase, which digest cellulose
B. Lysosomes, which has a weak antibacterial action
C. Serous fluid which increases primarily by sympathetic stimulation
D. Enzyme which digest protein
302. Which of the following conditions causes inhibition of gastric secretion?
A. Distension of the duodenal wall
B. Fats in the duodenum
C. pH less than 2 in the duodenum
D. pH more than 2 in the duodenum
303. Which of the under listed hormones cause contraction of the gall bladder?
A. Cholecystokinin
B. Gastrin
C. Gastric inhibitory polypeptide
D. Secretin
304. The painful or burning sensation in the chest usually associated with acid reflux in the oesophagus is called
A. Angina
B. A duodenal ulcer
C. Heart burn
D. A peptic ulcer
305. The lymphatic capillaries in the villi of the small intestines are called
A. Crypts of Lieberkuhn
B. Lacteals
C. Microvilli
D. Peyer’s Patches
306. During the function of the heart, the heart valves
A. Cause the heart sound when they open
B. Contract to pump blood through the heart
C. Prevent blood from flowing backward through the heart
D. Separate the left and right sides of the heart
307. The right ventricles of the heart acts as a pump for the
A. Coronary circulation
B. Hepatic portal circulation
C. Pulmonary circulation
D. Systemic circulation
308. The artrioventricular valves open when pressure in the
A. Atria is greater than pressure in the ventricles
B. Arteries is greater than pressure in the ventricles
C. Ventricles is greater than the pressure in the arteries
D. Ventricles is greater than the pressure in the atria
309. Which of the following factors would increase stroke volume?
A. Increased arterial blood pressure
B. Increased end diastolic
C. Increased sympathetic stimulation of the myocardium
D. Increased venous return
310. Which of the under listed is a function of the pleural fluid?
A. Helps fill the pleural cavity
B. Holds the visceral and parietal pleural membranes together
C. Increases diffusion rates in the lungs
D. Prevents the lungs from overinflating
311. Oxygen and carbon dioxide move through the respiratory membrane and into and out of cells by the process of
A. Active transport
B. Cotransport
C. Diffusion
D. Facilitated diffusion
312. Electrolytes are responsible for all the following except
A. Maintaining the osmolality of the body fluid compartment
B. Regulating the balance of acids and bases
C. Aiding in neurologic and neuromuscular conduction
D. Regulating body fluids
313. Major intracellular fluid electrolytes include
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Chloride
D. Bicarbonate
314. Cations are defined as
A. Positively charged ions
B. Negative.ly charged ions
C. Enzyme like substances
D. Precursors of electrolytes
315. The chief cation found in the extracellular fluid is
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Chloride
D. Phosphorus
316.
When caring for a patient who has had a small bowel obstruction
resection and is 1 day postoperative, the nurse is aware that the
patient is at riskfor electrolyte imbalance because of
A. Impaired nutrient intake
B. Impaired exchange between anions and cations
C. Pain
D. Impaired endocrine stimulation
317. Which of the following sources is a normal source of electrolyte intake?
A. Medications
B. Gatorade
C. IV solutions
D. Hyperalimentation
318. Which of the following statements is not true?
A. I C F electrolytes are found within the cell membrane
B. I C F electrolytes are not measureable
C. I C F electrolytes have non variable concentration
D. I C F electrolytes
319. When assessing a patient with hypernatraemia, the nurse would expect to find
A. Serum sodium level of 135mEq/litre
B. Moist mucous membrane
C. Thirst
D. Hypoactive reflexes
320. Patients at high risk for hyponatraemia include all the following except
A. Patients receiving hypertonic total parenteral nutrition
B. Patients on diuretic therapy
C. Burn victims
D. Patients with gastric suctioning
321. When E C F sodium is decreased, the adrenal glands send aldosterone to the kidneys to
A. Increase sodium reabsorption
B. Decrease sodium reabsorption
C. Increase water reabsorption
D. Decrease water reabsorption
322. When caring for a patient with hypernatraemia, the nurse is careful to administer
A. Water
B. Sodium
C. Potassium
D. Chloride
323. When caring for a patient with hyponatraemia, the nurse is careful to restrict
A. Water
B. Sodium
C. Potassium
D. Chloride
324. Which of the following IV solutions would the nurse administer for a patient with hypernatraemia?
A. 3% saline
B. 0.33% saline
C. D5W
D. Ringers Lactate solution
325. The nurse should administer hypertonic IV solutions with caution because these solutions will force
A. Water to leave the E C F
B. Water to leave the I C F
C. Cellular swellings
D. Hydrostatic pressure to drop
326. Aldosterone reabsorption of sodium occurs after stimulation with
A. A C T H
B. Insulin
C. A D H
D. Pitocin
327. When assessing a patient for potassium deficits, the nurse is aware that the normal serum potassium level ranges from
A. 1.5 – 3.5mEq/litre
B. 2.5 – 4.5mEq/litre
C. 3.5 – 5.0mEq/litre
D. 4.0 – 7.5mEq/litre
328. Which of the following symptoms is not associated with hypokalaemia
A. Muscle cramps
B. U waves on E C K
C. Paraesthesia
D. Hyperreflexia
329. When assessing a patient for hyperkalaemia, the nurse would not assess
A. U waves on E C G
B. Paraesthesia
C. Muscle cramps
D. Tented T waves on E C G
330. Before administering a medication containing potassium, an important nursing intervention is to check the patient’s
A. E C G
B. Pulse
C. Blood pressure
D. Urine output
331. When caring for a patient with hypercalcaemia, the nurse should plan to administer which of the following drugs?
A. Inderal
B. Bicarbonate
C. Lasix
D. Mannitol
332. The most dangerous sequel of hypercalcaemia is
A. Constipation
B. Muscle weakness
C. Dyspnoea
D. Dysrhythmias
333. Which of the following metabolic conditions places a patient at high risk for hypercalcaemia?
A. Myxoedema
B. Exercise
C. Hyperphosphotaemia
D. Hyperparathyroidism
334. When educating a patient about foods high in calcium, the nurse would be recommended
A. Canned fish
B. Coffee
C. Dry beans
D. Meat
335. Normal calcium levels are
A. 800mg
B. 1200mg
C. 8.5 – 10.5mg/dl
D. 2.5 – 4.5mg/dl
336. Serum calcium levels rise with metastatic done because of
A. Hyperphosphotaemia
B. Osteoporosis
C. Chemotherapy
D. Accelerated bone metabolism
337. A client with pyrexia would demonstrate
A. Dyspnoea
B. Elevated blood pressure
C. Increased pulse rate
D. Precordial pain
338. Red blood cell production is controlled by
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Pancreas
D. Spleen
339. Pleuritic pain from irritation of the parietal pleura is best described as
A. Catchy
B. Sharp
C. Cutting
D. Pinching
340. Wheezing is a high pitched musical sound heard mainly on
A. Coughing
B. Inspiration
C. Expiration
D. Whistling
341. The bluish colouring of the skin in respiratory condition is known as
A. Clubbing
B. Dyspnoea
C. Haemoptysis
D. Cyanosis
342. Clubbing of the fingers is a sign of
A. Anaemia
B. Cyanosis
C. Dehydration
D. Chronic lung diseases
343. The closure or collapse of the alveoli is known as
A. Atelectasis
B. Arteriosclerosis
C. Epistaxis
D. Sleep anoea
344. Community pneumonia occurs with the first……………….of hospitalisation
A. 24 hours
B. Week
C. 48 hours
D. Two weeks
345. When reviewing laboratory results of an 83 year old patient with an infection, the nurse expects to find
A. Minimal leucocytes
B. Decreased platelet count
C. Increased haemoglobin and haematocrit levels
D. Decrease erythrocyte sedimentation rate
346. Immediately following a bone marrow biopsy and aspiration, the nurse should instruct the patient to
A. Expect to receive a blood transfusion
B.Lie still with a sterile pressure dressing intact
C. Lie with knees slightly bent and head elevated
D. Cleanse the site immediately with povidone iodine
347.
When providing care for a patient with thrombocytopenia, the nurse must
avoid administering aspirin or aspirin containing products because they
A. Interfere with platelet aggregation
B. May contribute to the destruction of thrombocytes
C. May mask the fever that occurs with thrombocytopenia
D. Alter blood flow to the homeostatic mechanisms in the brain
348.
The nurse would expect that a patient with Von Willebrand’s disease
undergoing surgery would be treated with administration of V W F and
A. Factor VI
B. Factor VII
C. Factor VIII
D. Thrombin
349. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (D I C) is a disorder in which
A. The coagulation pathway is genetically altered leading to thrombus formation in all major blood vessels
B. An underlying disease depletes haemolytic factors in the blood leading diffuse thrombotic episodes and infarcts
C.
A disease process stimulates coagulation processes with resultant
depletion of clotting factors leading to diffuse haemorrhage
D.
An inherited predisposition causes deficiency of clotting factors that
leads to overstimulation of coagulation processes in the vasculature
350.
When obtaining assessment data from a patient with microcytic
normocytic anaemia, the nurse would question the patient about
A. Folic acid intake
B. Dietary intake of iron
C. A history of gastric surgery
D.A history of sickle cell anaemia
351. A nursing intervention for a patient with severe anaemia of chronic disease includes
A. Monitoring stools for guaiac
B.Instructions on high iron intake
C. Monitoring urine intake and output
D. Teaching self – injection of erythropoietin
352.
A patient with anaemia secondary to heavy menstrual blood loss
describes her dietary intake to the nurse. For breakfast the nurse
recommends that whole grain cereal be substituted for
A. Scrambled eggs
B. Sausage and toast
C. Fresh fruit and yoghurt
D. Granola bar with raisins
353. The nursing management of a patient in sickle cell crisis includes
A. Bed rest and heparin therapy
B.Blood transfusions and iron replacement
C. Aggressive analgesics and oxygen therapy
D. Platelet administration and monitoring
354. A complication of hyperviscosity of polycythaemia is
A. Thrombosis
B. Cardiomyopathy
C. Pulmonary oedema
D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (D I C)
355.
Myelodysplastic syndromes are thought to arise from the pluripotent
haemotopoietic stemcell in the bone marrow. A nurse should therefore
expect a laboratory results which contain
A. An excess of platelets
B. An excess of T cell
C. A deficiency of granulocytes
D. A deficiency of all cellular blood components
356. A doctor has ordered multiple drug combinations as thefirst line treatment of leukaemia and lymphoma because
A. There are fewer toxic and side effects
B. The chance that one drug will be effective is increased
C. They can interrupt cell growth at multiple points in the cell cycle
D. They are more effective without having exacerbation side effects
357.
A patient in your ward with multiple myeloma complains of confusion and
lethargy. The nurse would expect that these clinical features or
manifestations may be explained by diagnostic result that indicate
A. Hyperkalaemia
B. Hyperuricaemia
C. Hypercalcaemia
D. Central Nervous System
358.
When checking the capillary filling time of a patient, the nurse
recognises that the colour of the nail bed returns in 10 seconds, the
finding is an indicative of
A. A normal response
B. Thrombus formation in the veins
C. Lymphatic obstruction of venous return
D.Impaired arterial flow to the extremities
359. A nurse assesses a patient and notes a palpable precordial thrill. Her findings may be caused by
A. Gallop rhythm
B. Heart murmurs
C. Pulmonary oedema
D. Right ventricular hypertrophy
360.
A
patient in your ward has been scheduled for an invasive cardiovascular
diagnostic study. An important nursing responsibility for the patient is
A. Checking the peripheral pulses and percutaneous sites
B.Instructing the patient about radioactive isotope injection
C. Informing the patient that general anaesthesia will be given
D. Assisting the patient to do a surgical scrub of the insertion site
361.
Mr Lazarazu has undergone E C G because the doctor suspects myocardial
infarction after taking his history. As a senior nurse, a P wave on the E
C G represents an impulse
A. Arising at the S A node and repolarising the atria
B. Arising at the S A node and depolarising the atria
C. Arising at the A V node and depolarising the atria
D. Arising at the A V node and spreading to the bundle of His
362. The nurses identifies a need for dietary teaching for the patient whose daily intake of food groups consists of
A. 2 – 4 servings of the fruit group
B. 2 – 3 servings of milk, yoghurt and cheese group
C. 4 – 5 servings of the bread, cereal, rice and pasta group
D. 2 – 3 servings of meat, poultry, fish, beans, eggs and nut group
363. In general, nutrient or food interactions with medications can result in all of the following except
A. Enhancing drug absorption
B. Retarding drug bioavailability
C. Increasing a nutrient requirement
D. All the above can happen
364. A successful goal of treatment that a nurse may recognise in a patient with anorexia nervosa is when the patient
A. Demonstrate a rapid weight gain
B. Consumes the required daily intake of nutrients
C. Commits a long – term individual and family counselling
D. Verbalises feelings regarding self – image and fears of becoming obese
365. A patient with Vincent’s infection should be taught that his/her treatment will include
A. Smallpox vaccination
B. Viscous lidocaine rinses
C. Amphotericin B suspension
D. Topical application of antibiotics
366. The most appropriate nursing intervention to provide oral care for a patient unable to do this for himself involves
A. Applying a fluoride solution to the surface of the teeth
B. Using oral antimicrobial agents to reduce local bacterial counts
C. Brushing and flossing the patient’s teeth
D. Swabbing the patient’s mouth with soft foam applications soaked with mouth wash
367. In assessing a patient with oesophageal achalasia the nurse would expect the patient to say or report
A. A history to say or report
B. A sore throat and hoarseness
C. Dysphagia, especially with liquids
D. Relief of pyrosis with the use of antacids
368.
Mrs Julles, aged 85 is reported of nausea all day and has vomited
twice. From your assessment data, you instruct that she be given
A. Antispasmodic drugs and observe skin turgor
B. Mouth sips of water and elevate the head of her bed to prevent aspiration
C. Offer her large quantities of sodium containing drinks since elderly people are at risk for sodium depletion
D. Offer her high protein liquid supplement to drink to maintain her nutritional needs
369. The pernicious anaemia that may accompany gastritis may be due to
A. Chronic autoimmune destruction of cobalamine stores in the body
B.
Progressive gastric atrophy from chronic breakage in the mucosal barrier and blood loss C. A lack of intrinsic factor normally produced by acid – secreting cells of the gastric mucosa
D. Hyperchlorhydria resulting from an increase in acid secreting parietal cells and degrading of R B Cs
370. Discharge teachings for a patient with acute episodes of G I bleeding will include information concerning the importance of
A. Taking only medications prescribed by the physician
B. Avoiding taking aspirin with acidic beverages such as orange juice
C. Taking all medications 1 hour before meal time to prevent further bleeding
D. Reading all O T C medications labels to avoid medications containing stearic acid and calcium
371. You are teaching your patient and her family about possible causes of peptic ulcers. You explain that ulcer formation is
A. Inherited within families and reinforce by bacterial spread of staphylococcus aureus in childhood
B. Promoted by factors that tend to cause over secretion of acid, such as excess dietary fats, smoking and B pylori
C. Caused by a stressful lifestyle and other acid – producing factors such as B pylori
D.
Promoted by a combination of possible factors that may result in
erosion of the gastric mucosa including certain medications and alcohol
372.
Several patients are hit by symptoms of nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea
that started after attending a family reunion pot luck dinner. The nurse
question the patients specifically about foods they ingested containing
A. Beef
B. Meat and milk
C. Poultry and eggs
D. Home preserved vegetables
373. The nurse notifies the physician, suspecting a possible ruptured appendix when the patient has
A. A low grade fever with a leucocytosis
B. A distended, rigid abdomen and muscle
C. Right lower quadrant pain on palpation of the left lower quadrant
D. Localised abdominal pain hallway between the umbilicus and the right iliac
374. When the vascular volume is depleted, the nurse can expect the sign of
A. Decreased urine output, postural hypotension and tachycardia
B. Increased urine output, postural hypotension and tachycardia
C. Tachycardia, hypertension and decreased urine output
D. Tachycardia, hypertension and increased urine output
375. A flat x – ray could reveal which of the following about the kidneys?
A. Decreased glomerular function
B. Enlargement due to hydronephrosis
C. Renal calculi
D. Hypoperfusion of the kidneys
376. With acid retention respiratory compensation is manifested as
A. A cheyne – stroke respiratory pattern
B. An increased depth breathing
C. Decreased respiratory rate and depth
D. Increased arterial carbon dioxide levels
377. A client in uraemia will have all the following except
A. Uremic halitosis or stomatitis
B. Hiccups and anorexia
C. Spider haemangioma
D. Nausea and vomiting
378. Which of the following is a result of kidney failure? Excessive hydrogen ions
A. Cannot be excreted
B. Are counteracted by ammonia
C. Anteroposterior lung sounds
D. Weight gain with even muscle development
379. Which of the following is a classical indication of chronic hypoxaemia?
A. Increased combustion
B. Oxygen induced hyperventilation
C. Oxygen toxicity
D. Absorption atelectasis
380. Which of the following is not a complication related to tracheal suctioning?
A. Hypoxia
B. Tissue trauma
C. Infection
D. Bronchodilation
381.
A client with chronic bronchitis often shows signs of hypoxiA. The
nurse would observe for which of the following clinical manifestations
of this problem?
A. Increased capillary refill
B. Clubbing of fingers
C. Pink mucous membrane
D. Overall pale appearance
382.
A client has been diagnosed with a chronic airflow limitation problem.
Which of the following is not a disease of chronic airflow limitation?
A. Bronchiectasis
B. Bronchial asthma
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Pulmonary emphysema
383. A body structure primarily affected by pneumonia is which of the following?
A. Bronchi
B. Pharynx
C. Alveoli
D. Trachea
384. An assessment of which of the following would most likely follow or accompany rhinitis?
A. Pharyngitis
B. Tonsillitis
C. Laryngitis
D. Sinusitis
385.
When prescribing a drug for treatment of rhinitis and sinusitis, which
of the following classes of drugs would not be included?
A. Antihistamines
B. Antipyretics
C. Decongestants
D. Mucolytics
386. Which two of the following valve disorders would not cause paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea?
A. Mitral stenosis
B. Mitral prolapse
C. Mitral insufficiency
D. Aortic insuffic9iency
387. The diagnostic test most often performed to assess valvular heart disease is
A. Echocardiogram
B. Electrocardiography
C. Exercise testing
D. Thallium scanning
388. Pitting oedema is a sign for which type of valvular disease
A. Mitral valve stenosis and insufficiency
B. Aortic valve stenosis and insufficiency
C. Both aortic and mitral valve insufficiency
D. Mitral valve prolapsed
389. The main cause of heart failure is related to which of the following conditions?
A. Renal failure
B. Myocardial infarction/coronary artery disease
C. High fat diet
D. Hypertension
390. Drug therapy for heart failure include
A. Inotropic agents to increase heart rate
B. Sympathomimemtics to decrease contractility
C. Diuresis to increase the cardiac period
D. Vasodilators to decrease systemic resistance
391. Assessment findings of a client with right sided heart failure is most likely to include
A. Dependent oedema
B. Weight loss
C. Hypotension
D. Angina
392.
A client with congestive heart failure is suspected of having pulmonary
oedemA. To diagnose pulmonary oedema, the test that is most useful is
A. Pulmonary artery catheterisation
B. Thallium scan
C. Arterial Blood Gas
D. Lung scan
393. Leukaemia is classified as which of the flowing type of disease?
A. Nutritional
B. Infectious
C. Neoplastic
D. Allergic
394. The sites commonly used for bone marrow biopsies are
A. Sternum and iliac crest
B. Sternum and femur
C. Skull and femur
D. Radius and skull
395. A patient with leukaemia having an elevated temperature may be due to
A. Dehydration
B. Brain damage
C. Penicillin hypersensitivity
D. Hypermetabolism
396. Which of the following symptoms should be observed for in patient with coronary heart disease?
I. Pallor
II. Diaphoresis
III. Anxiety
IV.Breathlessness
V.Vomiting
A. I and II
B. II and IV
C. All but V
D. All the above
397. Excessive alcoholism is a predisposing cause of all underlisted diseases except
A. Cancer of lungs
B. Liver cirrhosis
C. Mental illness
D. Peptic ulcer
398. In blood transfusion reaction, the nurse
A. Informs the doctor
B. Give antihistamine
C. Clip off the transfusion
D. Give diuretics
399. Haemolytic anaemia is characterised by
A. An increased in red and white blood cells count
B. Abnormality of red blood cells
C. Decreased in red blood cells count
D.Over destruction of red blood cells
400. Mr Asuming will be given digitalis. The effect of digitalis is to
A. Increase the heart rate and weaken contractions
B. Slow theheart rate and strengthen contractions
C. Decrease cardiac output
D. Decrease renal blood flow
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