201 - 300 Solved Paediatric Nursing MCQ Test Questions Bank

201. A patient with enteritis would be placed on this diet
A. High carbohydrate
B. High residue
C. Low fat
D. Low residue

202. Increased blood pressure with bounding pulse and a complaint of headache during infusion is indicative of
A. Air embolism
B. Fluid overload
C. Hypoglycaemia
D. Sepsis

203. Which of the following is responsible for Haemophilia ‘A’?
A. VIII
B. IX
C. X
D. XIII

204. Which of these would be LEAST helpful in communicating with an aphasic Cerebrovascular Accident (CVA)?
A. Allowing plenty of time for patient to respond
B. Completing the sentence that patient cannot finish
C. Looking directly at patient during attempt at speech
D. Speaking to the patient at a lower rate

205. The MOST sensitive indicator of all cardiac enzymes in myocardial cell damage is
A. Alkaline phosphate
B. Creatine kinase
C. Lactic dehydrogenase
D. Serum glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase

206. An intravenous analgesic is frequently administered to relieve chest pain associated with myocardial infarction. The drug of choice is usually
A. Codeine sulphate
B. Hydromorphine hydrochloride
C. Meperidine hydrochloride
D. Morphine sulphate

207. The basic cause of angina pectoris is believed to be
A. Dysrhythmias triggered by stress
B. Insufficient coronary blood flow
C. Emboli found in the coronary vessels
D. Spasms of the vessel walls owing to excessive secretion of adrenaline

208. Which of the following instructions would you give to a patient with pulmonary emboli on discharge?
A. Dorsiflex your feet several times, hourly whilst sitting
B. Do postural drainage exercise on waking up and at bed time
C. Increase your fluid intake daily to one litre
D. Sleep with the head of your bed elevated thirty to forty degrees

209. Which of these interventions would prevent respiratory complication in caring for an elderly patient on bed rest?
A. Changing the position every 2 hours
B. Decreasing oral fluid intake
C. Holding the breath every hour
D. Monitoring vital signs very shift

210. Which of the following assignments would you give to a nursing assistant?
A. Administering medication
B. Giving evacuate enema
C. Patient teaching after discharge
D. Giving blood transfusion

211. Subcutaneous injection is given for the following reasons. When
I. Small volume of the drug is required
II. Slow absorption is a priority
III. The drug is not likely to damage the superficial tissue
IV. The drug is not likely to damage the muscles
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. I, II and IV
D. I, II, III and IV

212. Precautions to be taken during oxygen administration include the following EXCEPT
A. Avoid naked flames or fire
B. Apply alcohol on patient’s skin
C. Do not use oil on the oxygen cylinder
D. Keep cylinder in a cool place

213. Nursing diagnosis represents the
A. Assessment of client data
B. Actual nursing intervention
C. Client’s health problems
D. Proposed plan of care

214. The most common symptom of pruritus is
A. A rash
B. Itching
C. Flaking
D. Pain

215. Which of the following is a symptom of increased intracranial pressure?
A. Facial flushing
B. Photophobia
C. Tachycardia
D. Vomiting

216. In inspecting the turbinate’s of a patient, which instrument should the nurse use?
A. Ear speculum
B. Laryngoscope
C. Nasal speculum
D. Otoscope

217. An important component of the physical examination in relation to nursing process is
A. A holistic approach to the assessment phase
B. Completion of the nursing evaluation phase
C. Establishment of baseline for the patient
D. The generation of a definitive nursing diagnosis

218. When evaluating the extracellular fluid volume deficit state (ECFVD), the nurse should initially assess the patient for
A. Cardiac arrhythmias
B. Polyuria
C. Signs of dehydration
D. Trousseau’s sign

219. A patient suffering from coronary artery disease is MOST likely at risk of developing
A. Extracellular fluid volume excess
B. Hyperosmolar fluid volume deficit
C. Intracellular fluid volume deficit
D. Iso-osmolar fluid volume deficit

220. Osteoarthritis is associated with the following signs and symptoms EXCEPT
A. Bouchard’s nodes
B. Pannus formation
C. Tenderness of the joint
D. Joint pain

221. The nurse knows that the most critical time period for diagnosis of myocardial infarction is
A. Between the third and fifth day after the attack
B. The first hour after symptoms begin
C. Within 24 hours of the onset of symptoms
D. Within the first 48 hours after the attack

222. The following are composition of urine EXCEPT
A. Ammonia
B. Bronides
C. Chlorides
D. Oxalates

223. The basis or framework used to evaluate the patient’s response to nursing intervention can be found in the nursing
A. Care plan
B. Diagnosis
C. Goals
D. Interventions

224. A decrease in peristalsis noted in an older client by the nurse is most likely to result
A. Bowel incontinence
B. Constipation
C. Fluid volume deficit
D. Impaired swallowing

225. Which of the following laboratory tests would the nurse monitor when a client is receiving warfarin sodium (Coumadin) therapy?
A. Arterial blood gases
B. Serum potassium
C. Prothrombin time (P.T)
D. Partial thromboplastin time (P.T.T.)

226. What measure would the nurse employ to ensure that a patient receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) does not develop osmotic diuresis as a complication?
A. Administer the solution slowly
B. Keep infusion at room temperature
C. Monitor the flow rate carefully
D. Protect the solution from light

227. Which of the following is most likely to be associated with bulimia patients?
A. Denial of abnormal eating
B. Depression
C. Fear of thinness
D. Social withdrawal

228. The nurse assists the patient to assume which position for insertion of gastrointestinal tube?
A. High fowler’s
B. Recumbent
C. Lateral
D. Supine

229. Nursing assessment of a patient with liver failure would include observation of
A. Abnormal bleeding
B. Diarrhoea
C. Hypotension
D. Hypothermia

230. The hormone aldosterone is produced by the
A. Adrenal cortex
B. Adrenal medulla
C. Adrenal matrix
D. Adrenal parenchyma

231. The extent of a patient’s renal damage would be reflected by the results of this blood test
A. Alkaline phosphatase
B. Creatinine
C. Potassium
D. Uric acid

232. Why should a client’s bowel be cleansed before intravenous pyelogram? To
A. Facilitate passage of the cystoscope into the urethra
B. Minimize his discomfort during the process
C. Promote visualization of the kidney’s, ureters and bladder
D. Permit maximum filling of the bladder with the radio-opaque dye

233. Hypoglycaemia is associated with
A. Facial flushing
B. Pruritus
C. Thirst
D. Tremors

234. Insulin is not taken orally because
A. Molecules are too large to be absorbed through the gastrointestinal tract
B. It inhibits the action of pancreatic digestive enzymes
C. It causes ulceration of gastrointestinal tract
D. It is destroyed by gastrointestinal enzymes

235. Which of the following under listed statements is a symptom of meningitis?
A. A negative Babinski response
B. Areas of paraesthesia of lower extremities
C. Peri-orbital oedema
D. Resistance to neck flexion

236. Which of these exercises would you prescribed for a client after an acute phase of rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Cycling
B. Jumping
C. Running
D. Swimming

237. The achievement of haemostasis would be indicative first by a decrease in
A. Blood pressure
B. Pulse rate
C. Respiration
D. Temperature

238. Which of these positions is BEST for a client on heparin with phlebitis?
A. Low-Fowler’s with legs elevated
B. Reverse Trendelenburg’s
C. Supine with legs flexed
D. Lateral with legs flexed

239. The purpose of dexamethasone administration is to
A. Alleviate pain
B. Promote urinary diuresis
C. Prevent infection
D. Reduce intracranial swelling

240. A child has rheumatoid fever which of the following nursing measures is likely to be most effective in minimizing his joint pains?
A. Applies ice to the affected joints
B. Limits movement of the affected joints
C. Massages the affected joints
D. Puts affected joints through range of the motion exercise

241. Which group of food would you recommend for a patient having iron deficiency anaemia?
A. Eggs, fortified cereals, meat, and green vegetables
B. Eggs, fruits, milk and mixed vegetables
C. Fruits, cereals, milk and yellow vegetables
D. Juices, fruits, milk and red meal

242. The non-surgical treatment of constipation includes the following EXCEPT
A. Dietary fibre intake
B. Exercises
C. Large fluid intake
D. Regular use of laxatives

243. In administering aminophylline intravenously to relieve severe asthma, the nurse should observe for
A. Decreased pulse rate
B. Decreased urinary output
C. Hypotension
D. Visual disturbances

244. Before administering morphine the nurse should assess the client’s
A. Blood pressure
B. Pulse
C. Respiratory rate
D. Temperature

245. The most common cause of lower back pain is
A. Herniated disk
B. Muscle strain
C. Osteoporosis
D. Spondylosis

246. The immediate priority care for a client who has bled massively from oesophageal varices is to
A. Control haemorrhage
B. Maintain patent airway
C. Replace fluids
D. Relieve the client’s anxiety

247. The diet is suitable for a client suffering from agranulocytosis
A. Balanced diet
B. High protein diet
C. High carbohydrate diet
D. High fat diet

248. Which of the following assessment findings would a nurse expect to find in a client with bacterial pneumonia?
A. Bilateral expiratory wheezing
B. Increased phlegms production
C. Resonance on percussion
D. Vesicular breath sounds

249. What should a client on warfarin sodium do?
A. Avoid the use of a toothbrush during oral hygiene
B. Consult the physician before having tooth extraction
C. Eat a lot of green leafy vegetables
D. Use rectal suppositories to treat constipation

250. Prominent neck veins, hypertension and bouncing pulse are indicative of fluid excessive this compartment
A. Extracellular
B. Interstitial
C. Intravascular
D. Intracellular

251. Which of the following signs is indicative of hypokalaemia in a patient who is having severe diarrhoea?
A. Arrhythmia
B. Confusion
C. Muscle spasms
D. Thirst

252. Which of these pathophysiological alterations causes a depressed immune system in a client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS)?
A. Decreased leucocyte count
B. Fragility of red blood cells
C. Low platelet count
D. Reduction of nucleated erythrocytes

253. Which of the following measures should be carried out after a bone marrow aspiration a client with leukaemia?
A. Check femoral pulse on the side where the procedure was performed
B. Encourage client to take in large amount fluids
C. Keep client flat in bed
D. Observe the site for drainage

254. Symptoms suggestive of acute glomerulonephritis include
A. A sweet odour from urine
B. Pain on voiding
C. Smoky-brown coloured urine
D. Voiding frequently in small amount

255. A patient with cirrhosis of the liver would have symptom?
A. Elevated serum glutamic oxalo-acetic transaminase (S.G.O.T)
B. Increased serum albumin
C. Increased serum magnesium
D. Normal Prothrombin time

256. Which of these measures should be taken following a liver biopsy?
A. Assessing lung sounds
B. Evaluating pedal pulses
C. Listening to bowel sounds
D. Monitoring blood pressure

257. In planning the care of a patient with chronic lymphocytic leukaemia who is weak and cachectic, the priority nursing diagnosis would be
A. Altered body image
B. Fluid volume deficit
C. Impaired gas exchange
D. Potential for haemorrhage

258. The primary purpose for regulating nursing practice by the state is to protect
A. Practical nursing
B. Professional standards
C. The public
D. The employing agency

259. To utilize the nursing process, the nurse must first
A. Evaluate the effectiveness of nursing actions
B. Identify goals for nursing care
C. Obtain information about the client
D. State client needs

260. In taking a client’s apical pulse, the nurse should place the stethoscope
A. Between the third and fourth ribs and to the left of the sternum
B. Between the sixth and seventh ribs at the left mid-axillary line
C. In the fifth intercostal space along the left mid-clavicular line
D. Just to the left of the medium point of the sternum

261. Sudden onset of Enuresis in a previously dry child indicates:
A. Emotional stress
B. Nephritis
C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. Pyelonephritis

262. In examining a 2-year old child with an otoscope, the nurse

A. Holds just the head and arm
B. Holds the head straight
C. Pull the pinna down and back
D. Pull the pinna up and back

263. Which of the under listed is an infectious skin lesion that affect the new born
A. Bullous impetigo
B. Erythema toxicum
C. Milia
D. Pigmented naevus

264. Which of the following statements mean the mother understands the practice of demand feeding?
A. I will feed, baby only when the baby cries
B. I will feed only when the baby is awake
C. I will feed baby as often and as long as he needs it
D. I will have schedule times to feed the baby

265. The nurse’s primary role relating to sexually transmitted disease is
A. Case reporting
B. Diagnosis and treatment
C. Recognizing symptoms
D. Sexual counselling

266. A mother brought her 6 week baby boy to the clinic with the following features: small head, flattened forehead and a receding chin. On examination, which of the following condition could apply?
A. Down’s Syndrome
B. Edward’s Syndrome
C. Patu’s Syndrome
D. Potter’s Syndrome

267. When examining of a four day old baby, the midwife should look for which of the following?
I. Equality of the limbs
II. Jaundice of the skin
III. Patency of the anus
IV. Signs of infection of the cord
A. II and IV
B. II and III
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV

268. Which of these conditions in the newborn must be reported to the doctor immediately?
A. Exomphalus
B. Extra digit
C. Moon face
D. Tongue tie

269. Intramuscular vitamin K is given to babies at birth because of
A. High level of foetal cells
B. High level of haemoglobin
C. Low level of Prothrombin
D. Low level of thrombocytes

270. Which of these injuries may occur as a result of difficult labour?
I. Erb’s palsy
II. Facial paralysis
III. Fracture of femur
IV. Torticollis
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV

271. Which of the underlisted reflexes provide an indication for normality in the skeletomuscular system?
A. Blinking
B. Cough
C. Gag
D. Grasp

272. Mr Owam suffered from mumps when he was 8 years old. Which of the following condition is likely to affect the functions of the testes?
A. Cryptorchildism
B. Hypospadias
C. Orchitis
D. Phimosis

273. The congenital abnormality in which a sac is formed on the umbilical area is
A. Meningocele
B. Omphalocele
C. Pyloric stenosis
D. Umbilical hernia

274. Which of the following in the newborn baby girl is normal?
A. Bleeding from umbilicus
B. Passage of meconium within the first 24 hours
C. Respiratory rate of 70 beats per minute at rest
D. Yellow skin tones at 12 hours after birth

275. The main aim of play in infancy:
A. Teaching how to share
B. Socialisation
C. Physical development
D. Diverting the infant’s mind from the mother

276. Which of the following should the parents of a one-year old child be MOST concern about?
A. Toilet training
B. Accident in the home
C. Adequate nutrition
D. Sexual development

277. A 9-year old boy has been on admission with sickle cell crisis and is for discharge. What education will you give to the parents and the child?
A. Take high protein diet
B. Take high calorie diet
C. Take plenty of nourishing diet
D. Undertake regular vigorous diet

278. Which of the following conditions would cause congenital abnormalities in a child, if the mother suffers from it during pregnancy?
A. Diphtheria
B. Measles
C. Rubella
D. Tetanus

279. The most serious complication of meningitis in children is;
A. Hydrocephalus
B. Blindness
C. Epilepsy
D. Peripheral circulatory collapse

280. Problems with nutrition may arise in children if during early childhood food is used as a means of:
A. Socialisation
B. Reward and punishment
C. Teaching discipline
D. Teaching culture

281. The primary task to be accomplished between 12 and 15 months of age is to learn to:
A. Climb stairs
B. Say simple words
C. Use a spoon
D. Walk erect

282. The commonest complication of mumps is
A. Glossitis
B. Sterility
C. Encephalitis
D. Tonsillitis

283. Which of the following is the reason why a child with glomerulonephritis is weight every morning
A. Weight gain will indicate that the condition is improving
B. It measures how much protein is being lost
C. To help plan caloric requirement of the child
D. It is the best way to measure the child’s fluid balance

284. Which of the following conditions may result in atelectasis?
A. Measles
B. Mumps
C. Pertussis
D. Diphtheria

285. A deficiency of this vitamin in diet of a child may lead to pellagra.
A. B2
B. B12
C. Niacin
D. Thiamine

286. The features of the paroxysmal stage of pertussis include;
I. Cyanosis in the face
II. Short inspiratory cough
III. Series of short sharp cough
IV. Expectoration of thick sticky mucus
A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV

287. Which of the following is a characteristic of developmental task?
A. There is no uniform time for learning a task
B. Tasks are learned at the same age in children
C. Tasks occur with predictable rhythm
D. Most tasks are learned by school age

288. Which of the following should the mother of a child with chalasia do?
A. Keep the child prone after feeds
B. Prevent the child from crying for prolong periods
C. Keep the child in a semi-sitting position after feeds
D. Give frequent small feeds

289. Untreated streptococcal tonsillitis in a child may later result in:
A. Dehydration
B. Acute rheumatic fever
C. Gastric ulcer
D. Laryngitis

290. Match the conditions with their treatments:
16. Whooping cough
17. Ascariasis
18. Leprosy
19. Typhoid fever
A. Whooping cough - Tetracycline
B. Ascariasis - Antepar
C. Leprosy - Rifampicin
D. Typhoid fever - Chloramphenicol

291. Nursing care for a child with tetanus should be primarily directed toward:
A. Carefully recording urinary output
B. Decreasing external stimuli
C. Encouraging copious fluid
D. Increased urinary output

292. A 9-year-old boy has fractured femur and a full leg plaster of Paris has been applied.
Which of the following observations should be reported to the doctor immediately?
A. A pulse of 100 bpm
B. Inability to move the toe
C. Increased urinary output
D. P.O.P is still damp after 6 hours

293. A 6-year-old is admitted to the hospital with bronchopneumonia.
An immediate priority in this child’s care would be the:
A. Adequate nutrition
B. Elimination
C. Prevention of complications
D. Rest

294. The major influence on eating habits of the early school age child is:
A. Food preferences of peer group
B. Availability of food selections
C. Examples of parents at mealtime
D. Smell and appearance of food

295. Which of the following is an indication that a child may be ill?
A. Longer periods of sleep
B. Profuse sweating
C. Grunting and rapid respirations
D. Desire for increased fluids

296. As a pre-school child, the 5-year-old’s response to hospitalization is influenced by fear of?
A. Bodily harm
B. Death
C. Missing classes
D. Other patients

297. A small toddler develops sudden hoarseness and makes unintelligible speech.
Which of the following may be responsible?
A. Acute respiratory tract infection
B. Undetected laryngeal abnormality
C. Respiratory obstruction due to foreign body
D. Pharyngeal abscess

298. Under certain circumstances the virus that causes chickenpox can also cause:
A. German measles
B. Athlete’s foot
C. Hepatitis
D. Herpes zoster

299. The poisonous substance produced by the organism which causes diphtheria can be neutralized by:
A. Diphtheria toxoid
B. Diphtheria antitoxin
C. Hydrocortisone
D. Penicillin

300. The rash in measles appears on the
A. First day
B. Second day
C. Third day
D. Fourth day