101 - 200 Solved NMC Licensure Questions Bank

101. As a general rule, after abdominal surgery, normal bowel sounds should be present before
A. Ambulation is begun
B. Dressing is change
C. IV fluids are discontinued
D. Pain medication is administered

102. Esther, 4years is rushed to the emergency ward convulsing, with the skin very hot to touch. What immediate step would you take to reduce the temperature?
A. Give her 5mls paracetamol syrup
B. Take the axillary temperature
C. Reassure the mother
D. Tepid sponge the child

103. Hannah, age 12, is 7 months pregnant. When teaching parenting skills to an adolescent, the nurse knows that which teaching strategy is least effective?
A. Providing a one-on-one demonstration and asking a return demonstration, with a live infant model
B. Initiating a teenage parent support group with first and second-time mothers
C. Using audiovisual aids that show discussions of feelings and skills
D. Providing age-appropriate reading materials

104. Which of the following is the commonest complication likely to occur in patients diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
A. Angina pectoris
B. Oesophageal atresia
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. thrombophlebitis

105. The nurse is aware that the most common assessment finding in a child with ulcerative colitis is:
A. Intense abdominal cramps
B. Profuse diarrhea
C. Anal fissures
D. Abdominal distention

106. Nursing assessment of a patient with liver failure would include observation of
A. Abnormal bleeding
B. Diarrhoea
C. Hypotension
D. Hypothermia

107. A viral infection in a child characterized by red blotchy rash and Koplik’s spot is known as;
A. Chicken pox
B. Diphtheria
C. Measles
D. Pertussis

108. An antidiurectic substance important for maintaining fluid balance is released by....
A. Adrenal cortex
B. Anterior pituitary gland
C. Adrenal medulla
D. Posterior pituitary gland

109. An observation consistent with complete-airway obstruction is:
A. Wheezes on auscultation
B. Gradual
C. Inability to cough
D. Loud crowing when attempting to speak

110. With peripheral arterial insufficiency, leg pain during rest can be reduced by:
A. Elevating the limb above the heart
B. Lowering the limb so it’s independent
C. Massaging the limb after application of cold compresses
D. Placing the limb in a plane horizontal to the body

111. One complication of otitis media is
A. mastoiditis
B. meningitis
C. parotitis
D. tonsillitis

112. One of the main functions of bile is to....
A. Help synthesize vitamins
B. Spilt protein
C. Produce an acid condition
D. Emulsify fats

113. An 8 year old child with sickle cell disease is admitted with a vaso-occlusive crisis. Priority nursing concerns would be
A. Hydration and pain management
B. Nutrition and antibiotics
C. Nutrition and hydration
D. Pain management and antibiotics

114. A 6 year old child is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia. An immediate priority in the child’s nursing care would be
A. Nutrition
B. Medication
C. Reassurance
D. Rest

115. A one –year-old girl is admitted to the ward diagnosed with dysentery. On discharge, what is the most important information the nurse must impart to the mother?
A. As soon as the child has diarrhoea place her on NPO for 8 hours
B. Do not wait for so long the next time before you bring the child to the hospital
C. Observe good hygiene to reduce faeco-oral spread
D. Start with anti-diarrhoea medication before bringing the child to hospital

116. For a male client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, which nursing intervention would help maintain a patent airway?
A. Teaching the client how to perform controlled coughing
B. Enforcing absolute bed rest
C. Administering prescribed sedatives regularly and in large amounts
D. Restricting fluid intake to 1,000 ml/day

117. To facilitate communication with an 80-year-old client diagnosed of presbycusis, the nurse should Select one:
A. use sign language
B. speak loudly
C. put the mouth closely to one ear when speaking
D. lower the voice pitch and face the client when speaking

118. The nurse suspects bleeding when a child who has had tonsillectomy
A. Becomes pale
B. Complains of thirst
C. Coughs persistently
D. Swallows frequently

119. A client diagnosed with a disorder involving the inner ear usually complains of ----
A. burning in the ear
B. hearing loss
C. tinnitus
D. pruritus

120. During the teenage years, the nutrition focus emphasizes
A. fat intake
B. prevention of drug abuse
C. prevention of obesity
D. Self and body image

121. An injection consisting of bacteria cells that have been modified is
A. An antitoxin
B. Toxin
C. Toxoid
D. Vaccine

122. The following are findings needed to diagnose hookworm infestation EXCEPT
A. Anaemia
B. Hookworm ova in the stool
C. Pus in the stool
D. Positive occult blood test

123. Molly, with suspected rheumatic fever, is admitted to the pediatric unit. When obtaining the child’s history, the nurse considers which information to be most important?
A. fever that started 3 days ago
B. Lack of interest in food
C. A recent episode of pharyngitis
D. Vomiting for 2 days

124. The side effects of oral iron therapy include
I. Blackened stools
II. Darkened teeth
III. Darkening of the skin
IV. Gastric irritation
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV

125. A client diagnosed of Manieres disease should avoid ----------
A. salty foods
B. green vegetables
C. citrus foods
D. cereal products

126. In haemophilia type B, there is deficiency of:
A. Factor VIII
B. Factor IX
C. Factor VII
D. Factor IV

127. Conservative management of haemorrhoids include the following EXCEPT
A. High fiber diet
B. Ice compressions for discomfort
C. Laxatives and stool softeners
D. Ligations of the hemorrhoids

128. At which age in the developmental stages is an infant expected to have first tooth eruption?
A. 3-4 months
B. 5-9 months
C. 10-12 months
D. 13-18 months

129. A client with acute is experiencing inspiratory and expiratory asthma wheezes and a decreased force expiratory volume. What is the priority intervention by the nurse?
A. Bronchodilators
B. Oral steroids
C. Inhaled steroids
D. Beta-adrenergic blockers

130. The vomitus in pyloric stenosis is not bile stained because
A. The bile duct is obstructed
B. The obstruction is above the opening of the common bile duct
C. The obstruction of the cardiac sphincter prevent bile from entering the oesophagus
D. The sphincter of the bile duct is connected to the hypertrophied pyloric muscle

131. Which of the following blood disorders are found in children?
I. Haemophilia
II. Sickle cell disease
III. Spherocytosis
IV. Thalassaemia
A. I and II
B. I, II and IV
C. I, II and III
D. I, II, III and IV

132. The nurse is teaching a health promotion class in the community. Which of the following would the nurse encourage in order to prevent type 2 diabetes mellitus?
A. A fat-free diet and nonimpact exercise three times weekly
B. A very low-carbohydrate diet with a moderate amounts of fat
C. Smoking cessation and a diet high in protein and fat
D. Maintenance of ideal weight and participation in regular exercise

133. The redirection of aggression from an unacceptable target to a more acceptable substitude is termed
A. Displacement
B. Sadism
C. Sublimation
D. Transference

134. An aspirate of synovial fluid from a patient with rheumatoid arthritis reveals which of the following Findings?
A. cloudy synovial fluid
B. presence of organisms
C. bloody synovial fluid
D. presence of urate crystals

135. An aspirate of synovial fluid from a patient with gout reveals which of these findings?
A. cloudy synovial fluid
B. presence of organisms
C. bloody synovial fluid
D. presence of urate crystals

136. Which of the following findings is indicative of sickle cell disease?
A. Raised level of genes
B. A single abnormal beta haemoglobin
C. Two haemoglobin s genes
D. A single haemoglobin s genes

137. Which of the following is an early sign of pneumocytis carinii infection
A. cough
B. dysphoea on exertion
C. dyspnoea at rest
D. fever

138. A client exposed to HIV infection approximately 3 months ago will present
A. oral lesions
B. purplish skin lesions
C. chronic cough
D. no signs and symptoms

139. In making dietary changes for a client experiencing nausea and vomiting, the nurse must...
A. A void diary products and red meat
B. Plan large, nutritious meals
C. Add spices to food for added flavour
D. Serve foods while they are very warm

140. A client diagnosed with eczema presents...
A. The presence of tiny red vesicles
B. An autoimmune disorder that causes blistering in the epidermis
C. The presence of red, raised papules and large plagues covered by silvery scales
D. The nerve caused by a virus.

141. A nurse administering immunizations at health care clinic understands that an immunization will provide.
A. Natural immunity form the disease
B. Acquired immunity form the disease
C. Innate immunity form the disease
D. Protection from all diseases

142. Which is the following is a clinical manifestation associated with osteoarthritis.
A. Pain that is most severe later in the day
B. An elevated platelet
C. Elevated antinuclear antibody levels
D. Dull aching pain in the affected joint

143. In haemophilia there is a:
A. Fast clotting time
B. Delay clotting time
C. Absence of clotting
D. All of the above

144. In all forms of leukemia, there is a
A. Weight gain
B. Weight loss
C. Decreased leucocytosis
D. Increased appetite

145. Haemophilia B is also called:
A. Addision’s disease
B. Crohn’s disease
C. Christmas disease
D. Von Kelly’s disease

146. The ataxia that occurs in pernicious anaemia results from a disturbance in the:
A. Skeletal tissue
B. Nervous tissue
C. Glandular tissue
D. Connective tissue

147. Dimentia often occurs in which of the following disease:
A. Pernicious anaemia
B. Addison’s syndrome
C. Aplastic anaemia
D. Haemorrhagic anaemia

148. Leucopenia in a patient makes him prone to the following except...
A. Anaemia
B. Infection
C. Bleeding
D. Somnolence

149. Thromobocytopenia in a patient makes him or her prone to...
A. Infection
B. Somenolence
C. Anaemia
D. Bleeding

150. A patient convalescing from abdominal surgery develops thrombophlebitis. Which sign will indicate to you that this complication has occurred?
A. Intermittent claudication
B. Localised warmth and tenderness of the leg
C. Pitting oedema of the lower extremities
D. Severe pain on extension of the extremities

151. Another name for hypercapnia is ...
A. Hypernopxia
B. Hypercarbin
C. Hyperdypsia
D. Hyperdyspnoea

152. In severe hyperthyroidism, the increased utilization of oxygen is due to ...
A. Rapid rate of absorption
B. Rapid rate of metabolism
C. Decrease rate of utilization of carbon dioxide
D. Severe break down of blood cells.

153. While caring for a patient who has undergone surgery under general anaesthesia, the nurse should notify the surgeon if the...
A. Patient pushes the airway out
B. Patient has a snoring respiration
C. Respirations are regular but shallow
D. Systolic B/P drops from 130 to 100

154. A patient convalescing from abdominal surgery develops thrombophlebitis. Which sign will indicate to you that this complication has occurred?
A. Intermittent claudication
B. Localised warmth and tenderness of the leg
C. Pitting oedema of the lower extremities
D. Severe pain on extension of the extremities

155. When caring for road traffic accident victims the nurse would prioritise care and provide treatment first for a patient with...
A. A fractured femur
B. A penetrating abdominal wound
C. Head injury
D. Ventricular fibrillation

156. The nurse would expect a patient in an early stage of severe Hypovolaemic shock to exhibit
A. A blood pressure 150/90
B. A distension of the neck vein
C. An apical heart rate of 142bpm
D. An output of 50ml urine per hour

157. In the immediate post-operative period following a splenectomy, the nurse should specifically observe the patient for...
A. Haemorrhage and abdominal distension
B. Intestinal obstruction and bleeding
C. Peritonitis and pulmonary complications
D. Shock and infections

158. As a result of a fractured rib the patient may develop...
A. Herniation of the diaphragm
B. Obstructive lung disease
C. Pneumothorax
D. None of the above

159. When suctioning a patient with a tracheostomy the nurse must remember to...
A. Inflate suction as the catheter is being withdrawn
B. Insert the catheter until the cough reflex is stimulated
C. Remove the inner cannula before inserting the suction catheter
D. Use a new sterile catheter with each insertion

160. When irrigating the indwelling urinary catheter the nurse should...
A. Aspirate immediately to ensure return flow
B. Instil the fluid under high pressure
C. Obtain and use sterile equipment
D. Warm the solution to body temperature

161. Following extensive and prolonged surgery, it is important that the nurse observes the patient for depletion of which electrolyte?
A. Calcium
B. Chloride
C. Potassium
D. Sodium

162. Which of these is assessed to determine the cause of prostate cancer?
A. Blood urea estimation
B. Creatinine
C. Prostate fluid for WBC
D. Prostate specific antigen

163. A myotic agent would always
A. Improve the sight
B. Induce diuresis
C. Constrict the pupil
D. Dilate the pupil

164. Which of the following data indicates a potential late complication associated with Bell’s palsy?
A. Partial facial paralysis
B. Excessive tearing
C. Negative electromyography
D. Degenerated taste buds

165. The common feature in a client with Alzheimer’s disease is:
A. Difficulty in performing new tasks
B. Problems with concrete thinking
C. Recent memory loss
D. Problems with learning

166. The following are forms of liver tests except
A. Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
B. Serum glutamic–oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT)
C. Serum glutamiate pyruvate transaminase (SGPT)
D. Serum metabolic rate (SMR)

167. Slow movement is described as:
A. Hypokenetics
B. Hypokenesia
C. Bradykenesia
D. Brady kinetics

168. In the body iron is more available in the form of.
A. myofils
B. haemosiderin
C. ferrous
D. ferritin

169. Haemophilia, a coagulation disorder that results from deficiency of:
A. Factor IV only
B. Both factor IV and factor VIII
C. Factor VIII & IX
D. Both fact VIII and factor IV

170. Immature red blood cells are called:
A. Megakaryocytic
B. Foetal heamoglobin’s
C. Recticulocytes
D. Monocydtes

171. The red blood cells that have a relatively low haemoglobin F have:
A. More haemoglobin S
B. Less normal haemoglobin
C. Greater life span
D. Less life span

172. Anaemia in sickle cell disease becomes evident and severe when:
A. More cells are produced
B. Erythropoiesis is suppressed
C. Hyperplasia persists
D. Less cells are produced.

173. During sickle cell crisis, there is a severe pain in the:
A. Chest, abdomen and joints.
B. Fingers, tongue and abdomen
C. Abdomen, breath and kidneys
D. Ear, throat and legs

174. The failure to inherit factor VIII leads to a deficient formation of:
A. Thromboplastin
B. Recticulocytes
C. Embolus
D. Rennin

175. Leukemia cells have been identified in patient suffering from...
A. Hypertension
B. Down’s syndrome
C. Paterson Brown’s Kelly syndrome
D. Nephritic syndrome

176. Pernicious anaemia is also called:
A. Avitaminosis
B. Koilonychias
C. Addison’s anaemia
D. Hanson’s disease

177. The normal intake of Vit. B12 is about:
A. 10 – 14ug
B. over 20 ug
C. 50 – 70ug
D. 3 – 4 ug

178. In haemophilia type B, there is deficiency of:
A. Factor IV
B. Factor IX
C. Factor VII
D. Factor VIII

179. During acute severe blood loss the body will:
A. inhibit erythropoiesis
B. reduce blood flow to the peripheral structures
C. substitute plasma with blood cells
D. increase haemolytic process

180. In the care of a patient with leukemia, the nurse must observe the patient for...
A. Eating of non-nutritious substances
B. Signs of dehydration and mental alertness
C. Signs of overhydration and pharyngitis
D. Bleeding tendencies and signs of infection

181. The presence of dysphagia and glossitis is referred to as...
A. Stevenson Johnson’s Syndrome
B. Plumber Vincent Syndrome
C. Browns Williams Syndrome
D. Paterson George Syndrome

182. In pancytopinia a combination of the following occurs:
i. Thrombocytopenia, anoxmia, hopoxia
ii. Thrombocytopenia, gluconaemia iii. Both anaemia and thrombocytopemia iv. Leukopenia, anaemia and thrombocytopemia
A. I, II III
B. II only
C. IV only
D. II, III and IV

183. The following are examples of haemolytic anaemias except...
A. Haemophilia
B. G6 P D
C. Sickle cell anaemia
D. Thalassaemia

184. In haemophiliacs, the swelling of the joints result from...
A. Infection
B. Bleeding
C. Bruising
D. Cholestremia

185. Acute leukemias show...
A. Mature and smaller than normal cells
B. Mature and larger than normal cells
C. Immature and smaller than normal cells
D. Immature and larger than normal cells

186. In Schilling test, urine is collected for:
A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 72 hours
D. 1 hour

187. In all forms of leukemia, there is a
A. Weight gain
B. Weight loss
C. Decreased leucocytosis
D. Increased appetite

188. A patient with pernicious anaemia may be given:
A. Antimetabolites
B. Aminoglycoides
C. Sulphonamides
D. Tranquilizers

189. Haemophilia B is also called:
A. Addision’s disease
B. Crohn’s disease
C. Christmas disease
D. Von Kelly’s disease

190. The ataxia that occurs in pernicious anaemia results from a disturbance in the
A. Skeletal tissue
B. Nervous tissue
C. Glandular tissue
D. Connective tissue

191. Dimentia often occurs in which of the following disease:
A. Pernicious anaemia
B. Addison’s syndrome
C. Aplastic anaemia
D. Haemorrhagic anaemia

192. Leucopenia in a patient makes him prone to the following except...
A. Anaemia
B. Infection
C. Bleeding
D. Somnolence

193. Thromobocytopenia in a patient makes him or her prone to...
A. Infection
B. Somenolence
C. Anaemia
D. Bleeding

194. Acute myeloid leukemia is more common in children under 4 years.
A. True
B. False
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

195. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia is more common in children under 10 years.
A. True
B. False
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

196. The emergency care of a patient with aplastic anaemia include the following except:
A. Admission of the patient
B. Control of bleeding
C. Taking of blood specimen
D. Monitoring of oxygen replacement

197. The following factors enhanced the absorption of iron from the gut except:
A. Vitamin C
B. Gastric acidity
C. Moderate alcohol consumption
D. Achorhydria

198. Another name for hypercapnia is ...
A. Hypernopxia
B. Hypercarbin
C. Hyperdypsia
D. Hyperdyspnoea

199. In severe hyperthyroidism, the increased utilization of oxygen is due to ...
A. Rapid rate of absorption
B. Rapid rate of metabolism
C. Decrease rate of utilization of carbon dioxide
D. Severe break down of blood cells

200. A clinical syndrome characterized by choking and suffocating chest pain is described as...
A. Nocturnal dysponea
B. Angina pectoris
C. Cardiac asthma
D. Myocardial infarction