1201 - 1300 Solved NMC Licensure Past Question Bank

1201. A 79 year old man suffered a myocardial infarction 20 minutes before being seen at the clinic and the physician mentioned to the nurse saying “I’m sorry but this man has suffered cardiogenic shock. This statement implies which one of the following:
A. High blood pressure
B. Pump failure
C. Electrocution
D. Significant blood loss

1202. Which of the following type of poisoning that induction of vomiting is not appropriate?
A. Corrosive
B. Irritants and narcotics
C. Narcotics
D. Irritants

1203. After you have survey an accident scene and provided for your own safety you should:
A. Take charge, remain calm and act with confidence to the level of your treatment
B. Provide primary treatment for shock
C. Call 911 or your local emergency number
D. Provide immediate treatment for the ‘hurry cases’

1204. When calling an ambulance, what are the 3Ws the First Aider must expect?
A. Who, What and When
B. Who, When and What
C. Where, what and when
D. Who, what and where

1205. A mass of new connective tissue and tiny blood vessels that forms on the surfaces of a wound during the healing process is known as:
A. Granulation tissue
B. Scar tissue
C. Erythema
D. Eschar tissue

1206. White or grayish-yellow patches on someone’s ear, noses or cheeks are signs of:
A. Frostbite
B. Cold related stress disorder
C. Anaphylactic shock
D. Hypothermia

1207. Pick the ODD one out of the following with regard to scope of First Aid:
A. Referral
B. Diagnosis
C. Admission
D. Assessment

1208. During the assessment of a client who needs first aid, what does the acronym ABC mean?
A. Airway, Boldness, Capacity
B. Airway, Breathing, Circumcision
C. Airway, Boldness, Circulation
D. Airway, Breathing, Circulation

1209. A 36 year old man, Yakote was hit down by a salon car. He had a deep lacerated wound on the lower limb bleeding. He was also bleeding from the back of his head and ceased to breath. Which of the following actions needs to be done first and immediately for this casualty?
A. Call the physician or doctor immediately
B. First stop bleeding, then take care of airway and breathing
C. Get a fast ultra-sound exam as soon as possible
D. First take care of airway and breathing, and then stop bleeding

1210. All the following are characteristics of lacerated wound EXCEPT:
A. Edges are sharp and well defined
B. Edges are jagged irregular
C. Skin and tissues are torn
D. Caused by fall on rough surface

1211. Signs and symptoms of shock includes the following EXCEPT:
A. Breathing rapidly, sighing
B. Shallow and slow breathing
C. Cold and clammy skin
D. Sub-normal temperature

1212. A First Aider who shares a casualty’s perception of reality is said to be:
A. Approachable
B. Empathetic
C. Honest
D. Resourceful

1213. Which of the following is not a material used for making bandages?
A. Fibre
B. Gauze
C. Cotton and wool
D. Calico

1214. Mr. Asaman sustained severe damage to his skin and the underlying tissues when he was exposed to extremely very cold temperature for a long period of time. This is termed as:
A. Frostbite
B. Wound
C. Burns
D. Scalds

1215. When considering multiple injuries to a casualty or multiple casualties then which of the following would be your priority?
A. Severe bleeding
B. Broken bones
C. Breathing difficulty
D. Burns

1216. A sensible assessment of the situation has to be made in First Aid especially when:
A. A decision has to be made on need for medical aid or transporting the casualty to hospital
B. The casualty wants sips of hot tea
C. The casualty has contusion
D. The casualty is discharged from hospital

1217. During your home visit, you met a 25 year old man who just drunk kerosene.

What immediate actions will you take?
A. Reassure him
B. Refer him to the hospital immediately
C. Tell the wife to give him palm oil
D. Induce vomiting

1218. Which of the following are the correct stages in arresting bleeding during an emergency?
A. Direct pressure – indirect pressure – tourniquet
B. Direct pressure – tourniquet – direct pressure
C. Indirect pressure – tourniquet – direct pressure
D. Indirect pressure – direct pressure – tourniquet

1219. What is procedure for treating a known poisonous snake bite?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A. Capture the snake. Place it in an ice chest and take the snake and victim to a hospital
B. Place a constricting bandage 4inches above the head of the snake bite to slow the spread of venom
C. Keep the victim calm, keep the bite location lower than the heart, get medical help immediately
D. Treat the victim for shock and continue the planned activity

1220. All the following are long term complications of a wound EXCEPT:
A. Shock
B. Scar
C. Keloids
D. Infections

1221. The general principles of First Aid states that ‘nothing should be given to a casualty to drink....’
A. In all circumstances
B. When unconscious only
C. When there is haemorrhage only
D. When there is shock only

1222. What is the correct procedure for dealing with a conscious choking adult?
A. Check airway, give 5 back blows and repeat
B. Give 5 back blows, give 5 chest thrusts, repeat
C. Check airway, attempt ventilation, give 5 back blows and repeat
D. Check airway, encourage coughing, giving up to 5 back blows

1223. The primary techniques used in treating a choking victim are:
A. Back blows and back slaps
B. Chest compression and rescue breaths
C. Heimlich maneuver and back slaps
D. Heimlich maneuver and abdominal thrust

1224. A casualty who is recovering from shock exhibits the following signs EXCEPT:
A. Low blood pressure
B. Respiration is slower and deeper
C. Casualty vomits or has a tendency to vomit
D. Pulse becomes slower and stronger

1225. All the following are causes of wound EXCEPT
A. Gangrene
B. Trauma
C. Burns
D. Infection

1226. What is First Aid?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A. Completing a primary survey
B. The first help given to the victim of an accident
C. Assessing a victim’s vital signs
D. Treating a victim for shock

1227. A 24 year old student sustained injury of the hand whiles he was playing volley-ball on campus. He was diagnosed as having a sprain of the hand.

Which of the following statement best defined a sprain?
A. Forcible wrenching and tearing of tendons
B. Forcible stretching of the tendons
C. Forcible wrenching and stretching of ligaments
D. Forcible stretching and tearing of ligaments

1228. Which of the following is NOT a predisposing factor to fractures?
A. Age
B. Disease of bone
C. Disease of blood vessel
D. Nutrition deficiencies

1229. The application of tourniquet to arrest hemorrhage is associated with the following complications EXCEPT:
A. Damage to skin
B. Granulation
C. Gangrene
D. Damage to nerve and muscles

1230. In First Aid, ‘hurry cases’ describes
A. Absence of breath, pulse and respiration
B. A bloody accident scene
C. Conditions that threatens victims life
D. Conditions requiring ambulance services

1231. During resuscitation, cardiac compression becomes necessary when there is:
A. Absence of respiration
B. No response to stimuli
C. Presence of pulse rate
D. Absence of heart beat

1232. Biting of the tongue and lips and blood stained saliva are seen in which stage of a major epileptic seizure?
A. Aura
B. Tonic
C. Clonic
D. Coma

1233. The accepted treatment for a sprained ankle is:
A. Remove the shoe and check for swelling using the capillary reflex method
B. Keep the shoe on, apply an ankle bandage for support, elevate and apply cold towels
C. Keep shoe on, apply an ankle splint and apply heat if possible
D. Have the victim walk or move as soon as possible to prevent stiffness

1234. What does the letter ‘C’ stands for in the ABCD of resuscitation?
A. Circulation
B. Cast
C. Condom
D. Cardioscope

1235. Which of the following is NOT a cause of hypovolaemic shock?
A. Surgical operation
B. Burns and scalds
C. Hemorrhage
D. Severe pain

1236. Which of the following statement about Anaphylactic shock is
true?
A. Caused by reduction of body fluids
B. Reaction between two antibodies
C. Over reaction between antibodies and antigens
D. Caused by emotional upset

1237. The destruction of sensory receptors explains why there is:
A. Pain in third degree burns
B. No pain in second degree burns
C. Pain in second degree burns
D. No pain in third degree burns

1238. Which of the following fracture does not usually need open reduction and internal fixation?
A. Mid shaft fracture of femur
B. Pathological fractures
C. Trochanteric fractures in elderly
D. Displaced intra-articular fractures

1239. What is the earliest indication of Volkmann’s ischaemia?
A. Pain
B. Pallor and poor capillary filling
C. Paraesthesia in median nerve area
D. Contracture of fingers

1240. The First Aider finds a victim under the wreckage of a collapsed building. The victim is conscious, breathing satisfactorily, and lying on the back complaining of pain in the back and an inability to move the legs. The First Aider should:
A. Leave the individual lying on the back with the instructions not to move and seek additional help
B. Gently raise the individual to a sitting position to see whether the pain either diminishes or increases in intensity
C. Roll the individual onto the abdomen, place a pad under the head, and cover with any material available
D. Gently lift the individual onto a flat piece of lumber and using any available transportation, rush to the closest medical institution.

1241. Which of the following is commonest material used to make orthopedic implant
A. Titanium
B. Stainless steel
C. Polyethylene
D. Methyl-methacrylate

1242. What is the first thing you should do for someone you suspects has an electrical burns:
A. Check for breathing and pulse
B. Check to see if electricity is turned off
C. Check for severe bleeding
D. Check for shock

1243. During which stage/phase of an epileptic attack does the victim experience twitching, jerking and at times incontinence of urine and feces.
A. Clonic phase
B. Coma phase
C. Tonic phase
D. Aura phase

1244. Which of the following is NOT done for a casualty who is bleeding from the tooth socket?
A. Loose tight clothing around the neck, chest and waist
B. Given ice to the casualty to suck
C. Fix a plug of gauze or cotton wool in to the socket
D. Discourage the casualty from spitting and washing the mouth

1245. The following are all types of bandages EXCEPT
A. Roller bandage
B. Crepe bandages
C. Triangular bandage
D. Tail bandages

1246. Death 3 days after pelvic fracture is most likely to be due to
A. Haemorrhage
B. Pulmonary condition
C. Fat embolism
D. Respiratory distress

1247. How would you treat a casualty with a soft tissue injury such as a sprain or strain?
A. Isolate and do not move
B. Rest, ice, compression, elevation
C. Raise, ice, comfort, evaluate
D. Take to hospital immediately

1248. Which of the following is incorrect about dislocation of sternoclavicular joint?
A. Anterior dislocation occurs due to indirect injury and is common type of dislocation
B. Posterior dislocation is rare and occurs due to direct injury over medial end of clavicle
C. Sternoclavicular dislocation is common compared to acromio-clavicular dislocation
D. Trachea can be compressed in posterior dislocation

1249. A patient who has sustained open wound on leg is bleeding profusely. Before patient arrives in hospital the safest method to stop bleeding is:
A. Elevation of leg
B. Local pressure on wound and elevation of leg
C. Ligation of bleeding vessel
D. Use of tourniquet

1250. Which of the following pressure point of the body (artery) that supplies blood to the side of the head?
A. Brachial artery
B. Facial artery
C. Radial artery
D. Temporal artery

1251. Severe bleeding is a ‘Hurry Case’ which one of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Bleeding can seldom be stopped with direct pressure
B. A tourniquet is almost always required to control serious bleeding
C. Should the first sterile pad used become blood soaked, immediately remove it and apply another
D. Try to avoid direct contact with the victim’s blood by using latex gloves or another barrier

1252. Local signs and symptoms of a fracture include the following EXCEPT:
A. Swelling
B. Shortening of affected area
C. Fever
D. Pain of the area

1253. When a fracture fragments are pushed into another tightly, it is known as:
A. Comminuted
B. Compound
C. Impacted
D. Spiral

1254. All the following are possible causes of haematemesis EXCEPT:
A. Peptic ulcer
B. Fracture of the base of the skull or jaw
C. Duodenal ulcer
D. Previous swallowing as a result of nose bleeds

1255. Assuming you are properly trained, the best procedure to follow for a water rescue is:
A. Throw, row then go
B. Try to reach from the shore, then throw a rope or rescue device, last go with support
C. Swim with support, throw a rope or floatation device, reach with a pole from shore
D. Reach, paddle, swim

1256. A fracture in which the broken bone has torn through the skin is
termed?
A. Closed fracture
B. Open fracture
C. Simple fracture
D. Spiral fracture

1257. Which is the strongest ligament?
A. Illio-femoral ligament
B. Ischio-femoral ligament
C. Pubo-femoral ligament
D. Transverse acetabular ligament

1258. A small animal that is almost invisible burrows into the skin and cause itching:
A. Common wood tick
B. Limon-Lyme tick
C. C-Rocky Mountain Spotted tick
D. Chigger

1259. When making as emergency call, what are the three Ws?
A. Who, What and Where
B. Where, What and Why
C. Why, When and Where
D. Who, What and What

1260. Which of the following best describes the meaning of the patient triage?
A. The sorting of patients based on the amount of time the patient has been waiting in the waiting area
B. The sorting of patients to be seen based on the age of the patient
C. The sorting of patients based on acuity level when they present to be seen at the hospital
D. The sorting of the patient medical record when they present to be seen at the hospital

1261. An unresponsive casualty who has pulse but no breathing requires
A. CPR only
B. Heimlich maneuver, rescue breath and CPR
C. Rescue breath, Heimlich maneuver and chest compression
D. Rescue breaths only

1262. What treatment does a victim who’s life threatening condition is ‘not breathing’ need?
A. The Heimlich maneuver, two rescue breaths and CPR
B. Start CPR immediately
C. Twelve to fifteen rescue breaths per minute and correct CPR
D. You should follow the steps for rescue breathing

1263. In arterial bleeding, blood escapes from the:
A. Part of the wound farthest away from the heart
B. Part of the wound nearest the lungs
C. Part of the wound nearest to the heart
D. All of the above

1264. When caring for a victim with a bloody nose, you would NOT:
A. Apply an ice pack to the bridge of the nose
B. Apply pressure to the upper lip just beneath the nose
C. Have the victim sit with head tilted slightly backwards
D. Have the victim sit with head tilted slightly forward

1265. Which of the following is NOT considered as a principle of First Aid?
A. Remove victim from danger or vice versa
B. Administration of pain killers to relief pain
C. Place unconscious victim in the prone position
D. Transport the casualty to a health facility

1266. Which of the following is the ‘golden rule’ in First Aid management?
A. Acting calmly and logically
B. Being gentle but firm
C. Do no harm
D. Speak kindly to the casualty

1267. Why should you cover burns with a clean or sterile dressing or material?
A. To cool burned area
B. To keep the burned area warm
C. None of the above
D. To prevent infection

1268. Which of the following types of wounds has a danger of damaging
deep internal organs?
A. Contused
B. Incised
C. Lacerated
D. Punctured

1269. Which of the following best defined secondary haemorrhage?
A. It occurs 48 hours after the injury
B. It occurs within 24 hours after the injury
C. Occurs from the 7th – 10th day after the injury
D. Occurs immediately after the injury

1270. In which year was the Health and Safety at work formed?
A. 1974
B. 1981
C. 1984
D. 1989

1271. During your home visit, you met a 25 year old man who just drunk kerosene.

What will you tell him before you proceed with your home visit?
A. Always read labels on bottles before drinking
B. Avoid the use of kerosene
C. Report immediately to any nearby health facility
D. Remain at home with his wife

1272. In bandaging a patient’s left leg during a wound care procedure, the nurse would:

A. Stand in front of the patient and bandage from below
B. Stand in front of the patient and bandage from top to bottom
C. Stand behind the patient and bandage downwards
D. Stand besides patient and bandage in any direction

1273. What is the best definition of the ‘Hurry Cases’?
A. Breathing, bleeding and broken bones
B. Any condition that threatens a victim’s life
C. Any illness where the victim vomits
D. Any accident requiring rescue breathing

1274. The ultimate objective of First Aid management is to:
A. Provide reassurance
B. Prevent complications
C. Relieve pain
D. Save life

1275. When considering multiple injuries to a casualty or multiple casualties, then which of the following would be your priority?
A. Severe bleeding
B. Broken bones
C. Breathing difficulty
D. Burns

1276. A 33 year old woman, Natasha sustained various degrees of burns on her right lower limb (front and back), her perineum and the neck when hot oil poured on her. With the Wallace’s rule of nine.
Calculate the total surface area burns.
A. 32.5%
B. 14.5%
C. 27%
D. 23.5%

1277. Which App gives you airtime and internet bundle for your Tellitnurse App quiz points?
A. Facebook
B. Twitter
C. tellitnurse App
D. Viber

1278. What is the immediate treatment for a casualty who has swallowed a corrosive poison?
A. Make them eat
B. Place in the recovery position
C. Give sips of water
D. Do nothing until at hospital

1279. Which of the following interventions will you take first when a victim is having asphyxia?
A. Giving rescue breaths
B. Opening victims airway
C. Removing victim to a safe area
D. Removing debris from the victim’s mouth

1280. The main purpose of First Aid management include the following
EXCEPT:
A. To aggravate pain
B. To prevent disability and death
C. To save life
D. To promote speedy recovery of injury part

1281. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is the combination of which of the following:
A. Rescue breathing and artificial respiration
B. Chest massage and pulmonary maneuver
C. Artificial respiration and mouth to mouth
D. Rescue breathing and chest compressions

1282. The accepted treatment for a nose bleed is:
A. Use direct pressure, elevation and pressure point to control the bleeding
B. Tilt the head back and tightly squeeze the nostrils
C. Have the victim lean forward. Apply gentle pressure on the nostril. Apply cold towels
D. Lay the victims on his back and treat for shock. Apply heat if available

1283. What is the most suitable position for an unconscious casualty:
A. Prone position
B. Dorsal with head turn to one side
C. Prone with head turn to one side
D. Lateral position

1284. Which of the following correctly describes the CPR technique for an adult?
A. Four cycles of 15 compressions followed by 1 breath each minute
B. One cycle of one breath and 10 compression each 2 to 3 inches deep per minute
C. Twelve cycles of one breath and 5 compression per minute
D. Four cycles of two breaths and 15 compressions per minute

1285. Which of the following should NOT be in your First Aid box?
A. Triangular bandage
B. Plaster
C. Headache tablets
D. Dressings

1286. What is the appropriate treatment for a suspected broken collarbone or shoulder?
A. Apply a simple sling. Bind the sling to the chest with a cravat
B. Use the cross your heart padded chest support method
C. Used the flail chest protection system
D. Apply a modified ‘Johnson Traction Splint’

1287. The accepted treatment for a femur or thigh fracture is:
A. Place a short padded splint on each side of the leg
B. This type of fracture is best handled by a traction splint applied by those with special training
C. Move the victim before properly applying a leg splint
D. Bind both legs with two long splints using two cravats, one above, and one below the break

1288. Select the odd out of the following about triangular bandage
A. Apex
B. Base
C. Ends
D. Tale

1289. In the treatment of First Aid conditions, the First Aider begins with:
A. The most urgent conditions first
B. Arrest of haemorrhage first
C. Laying casualty down with head turned to one side
D. Sending for medical

1290. If your casualty has clear fluid, spotted with blood, coming from their nose, then what condition do you think your casualty is suffering from?
A. Stroke
B. Concussion
C. Skull fracture
D. Headache

1291. A young man was involved in an explosion and sustained burned
injuries. Upon arrival to the hospital, physical assessment revealed that the anterior surface of the right upper limb and half of the anterior surface of the trunk was damaged. Estimate the surface area damaged.
A. 27%
B. 18%
C. 13.5%
D. 20%

1292. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate definition of First Aid?
A. An assistance to a sick person
B. The initial treatment given to anyone who becomes ill or injured
C. It is the quick and short term treatment for any emergency before the arrival of a physician or taking the victim to health facility
D. None of the above

1293. National emergency service that can be contacted during
emergency care include the following EXCEPT:
A. Zoom lion Ghana LTD
B. National ambulance service
C. Ghana fire service
D. Ghana police service

1294. Which of the following is not a stage in bandaging?
A. Applying
B. Patterning
C. Anchoring
D. Terminating

1295. When caring for a patient who is HIV positive the nurse should explain to the patient how to prevent
A. AIDS
B. Kaposis sarcoma
C. Other infections
D. Social isolation

1296. A patient who is exposed to hepatitis A is given gamma globulin to provide passive immunity which
A. Stimulates the lymphatic system to produce antibodies
B. Provides antibodies that neutralize the antigen
C. Increases the production of short – lived antibodies
D. Accelerates antigen-antibody union at the hepatic site

1297. One of the commonest complications of chronic asthma is
A. Pulmonary fibrosis
B. Pneumothorax
C. Emphysema
D. Atelectasis

1298. Before giving a patient digoxin the nurse should check
A. Apex heart rate
B. radical pulse
C. Difference between apex and radical pulse
D. Respiration rate

1299. The nurse should administer a nasogastric tube feeding slowly to reduce the hazard of
A. Abdominal distention
B. Flatulence
C. Regurgitation
D. Indigestion

1300. Before giving a patient digoxin the nurse should check
A. Apex heart rate
B. Difference between apex and radical pulse
C. radical pulse
D. Respiration rate