1. A serious complication of malaria is
A. Anaemia and haemorrhage
B.Black water fever
C. Congested lung
D. Impaired peristalsis
2. Which of the following are the common types of chronic pain?
I. Pain with obvious on – going peripheral pathology II. Chronic benign pain that may have peripheral or central pathology III. Pain that subsides and gradually disappears IV. Recurrent acute pain A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
3. To reduce the symptoms of sprue, the patient should be advised to avoid
A. Broad beans
B. Maize
C. Soya beans
D.Wheat
4. A patient onLasix and Digoxin should be observed for symptoms of electrolytes depletion caused by
A. Continuous dyspepsia
B.Diuretic therapy
C. Inadequate oral intake
D. Sodium restriction
5. An important nursing responsibility after intravenous pyelogram is to
A. Assess the patient for flank pain
B.Encourage extra oralfluid intake
C. Observe urine for remaining contrast material
D. Encourage ambulation 2 to 3 hours after the study
6. The nurse encourages strict diabetic control in the patient prone to diabetic nephropathy knowing that the renal tissue changes that may occur in this condition include
A. Uric acid calculi and nephrolithiasis
B.Renalsugar – crystal calculiand cyst
C. Lipid deposits in the glomeruli and nephrons
D. Thickening of the glomerular basement membrane and glomerulosclerosis
7. Clinical features of hypokalaemia include
A. Apathy, weakness, abdominal distension
B. Oedema, bounding pulse, confusion
C. Spasms, diarrhoea, irregular pulse rate
D. Sunken eyeballs, Kussmauls breathing, thirst
8. A patient with gastric ulcer is put on antibacterial agents. The nurse shouldexplain to the patient that these are ordered to
A. Augment the immune response
B. Potentiate the effect of antacids
C. Reduce hydrochloric acid secretion
D.Treat Helicobacter pylori infection
9. To prevent pulmonary embolus in a patient on bed rest, the nurse sou7ld
A. Encourage deep breathing and coughing exercise
B. Limit the patient’s fluid intake
C. Massage the legs twice daily
D. Teach the patient to move the legs when in bed
10. Conditions that result in decreased serum albumin will result in:
A. Decreased hydrostatic pressure with pressure shift from the interstitium to the vasculature
B. Increased hydrostatic pressure with plasma shift from vasculature to the interstitium
C. Increased oncotic pressure with plasma shift from the interstitium to the vasculature
D. Decreased oncotic pressure with plasma shift fromvasculature to the interstitium
11. The coronary arteries
A. Carry high oxygen content blood to the lungs
B.Carry blood from the aorta to the myocardium
C. Carry reduced oxygen content blood to the lungs
D. Supply blood to the endocardium
12. An antidiuretic substance important for maintaining fluid balance is released by
A. Adrenal cortex
B. Adrenal medulla
C. Anterior pituitary gland
D.Posterior pituitary gland
13. The pain associated with coronary thrombosis is caused primarily by
A. Arterial spasm
B. Blocking in the coronary veins
C. Irritation of nerve endings in the cardiac plexus
D.Ischemia of the heart muscles
14. The ideal fluid replacement for the patient with an Extra – cellular fluid volume deficit is:
A. Isotonic
B.Hypotonic
C. Hypertonic
D. A plasma expander
15. Without any pathological lesions, a patient’s respiratory centre is stimulated by
A. Calcium
B.Carbon dioxide
C. Lactic acid
D. Oxygen
16. An ambu bag is used in the intensive care unit when
A. A respiratory arrest occurs
B. A surgical incision with copious drainage is present
C. The patient is in ventricular fibrillation
D. The respiratory output must be monitored
17. Diabetic coma results from an excess accumulation in the blood of
A. Glucose from rapid CHO metabolism causing drowsiness
B. Ketones from rapid fat breakdown, causing acidosis
C. Nitrogen from protein catabolism causing ammonia intoxication
D. Sodium bicarbonate causing alkalosis
18. A common complication of myocardial infarction is
A. Anaphylactic shock
B.Cardiac arrhythmia
C. Cardiac enlargement
D. Hypokalaemia
19. When assessing a patient with a suspected atelectasis the nursed would expect
A. A dry unproductive cough
B. A normal oral temperature
C. Diminished breath sounds
D. Slow deep respiration
20. Tidal volume can be explained as the amount of air
A. Exhaled forcibly after normal expiration
B.Exhaled normally after normal inspiration
C. Forcibly inspired over and above normal inspiration
D. Trapped in the alveoli that cannot be extended
21. To assess the effectiveness of vasodilators administered for the management of hypertension, the nurse should take the patient’s pulse and blood pressure
A. After a resting position is maintained for 5 minutes
B. Immediately after the patient gets out of bed
C. Prior to administering the drug
D.30 minutes after giving the drugs
22. In a respiratory acidosis, compensation would be accomplished by:
A. Lungs retaining carbon dioxide
B.Lungs elimination carbon dioxide
C. Kidneys eliminating bicarbonate
D. Kidneys retaining bicarbonate
23. The benefit in using tetanus antitoxin is that it
A. Provides a high titre of antibodies
B.Provides immediate active immunity
C. Stimulates long – lasting passive immunity
D. Stimulates plasma cells directly
24. When a patient is receiving anticoagulant the nursing care should include observation for
A. Chest pain
B.Epistaxis
C. Headache
D. Nausea
25. A patient with diabetes mellitus says “I cannot eat big meals. I prefer eating snacks throughout the day”. The nurse should explain that
A. Large meals can bring about weight problems
B. Regulated food intake is basic to diabetic control
C. Salt and sugar restriction is the main concern
D.Small frequent meals are better for easy digestion
26. A pacemaker is used in some patients to serve the function normally performed by
A. Accelerate nerves to the heart
B. A V node
C. Bundle of His
D.S A node
27. In a patient who has a haemorrhage in the posterior chamber of the eye, the nurse knows that blood is accumulating
A. In the aqueous humour
B. Between the cornea and the lens
C. Between the lens and the retina
D. In the space between the iris and the lens
28. A patient who is exposed to Hepatitis A is given gamma globulin to provide passive immunity which
A. Accelerates antigen – antibody union at the hepatic site
B.Increases the production of short – lived antibodies
C. Provides antibodies that neutralise the antigen
D. Stimulates the lymphatic system to produce antibodies
29. An example of primary prevention activities by the nurse would be
A. Assisting in immunisation programme
B. Correction of dietary deficiencies
C. Establishing goals for rehabilitation
D. Prevention of disabilities
30. When assessing a patient with hyperthyroidism, the nurse should expect the patient to exhibit
A. Increased appetite, slow pulse and dry skin
B. Loss of weight, constipation and restlessness
C. Nervousness, weight loss and increased appetite
D. Protruding eyeballs, slow pulse and sluggishness
31. Increased intraocular pressure may occur as a result of
A.
Oedema of the cornea stoma B. Blockage of the lacrimal canals and duct
C. Dilation of the retinal arterioles
D. Increased production of aqueous humour by the ciliary process
32. When educating the family of a patient with AIDS who has been discharged, the nurse should tell the family
A. “let the patient eat from paper plates and discard them”
B. “Soak the plates in hot water overnight before washing them”
C. “you need to boil the plates for 30 minutes after use”
D. “wash the plates in hot soapy water as you usually do”
33. It is not important for the nurse to observe a patient with tetanus for
A. Muscular rigidity
B. Respiratory tract spasms
C. Restlessness and irritability
D.Spastic voluntary muscle contractions
34. When caring for a patient who is HIV positive, the nurse should explain to the patient how to prevent
A. AIDS
B. Kaposis sarcoma
C. Other infections
D. Social isolation
35. To prevent orthostatic hypotension in a patient on Methyldopa (Aldomet), the patient should be taught to
A. Avoid tasks that require high, energy expenditure
B. Lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication
C. Sit on the edge of the bed a short time before getting up
D. Wear support hose continuously
36. A patient with rabies will characteristically exhibit
A. Diarrhoea
B. Memory loss
C. Pharyngeal spasm
D. Urinary stasis
37. During physical examination of the patient’s skin, the nurse should
A. Provide a private, well – lighted room
B. Wear gloves during palpation of the skin
C. Focus initially on examination of specific lesions or problem areas
D. Maintain the patient’s privacy by undressing only areas that are abnormal
38. A patient with duodenal ulcer would probably describe the associated pain as
A. A generalised abdominal pain intensified by moving
B.A gnawing sensation relieved by food
C. An ache radiating to the left side
D. An intermittent colicky abdominal pain
39. When a patient is unconscious, the nurse should expect him to be unable to
A. Control elimination
B. Hear voices
C. Move spontaneously
D. React to painful stimuli
40. A patient has left hemiplegiA. The nurse contributes to the patient’s rehabilitation by
A. Beginning active exercises
B. Making referral to the physiotherapist
C. Not moving the affected arm unnecessarily
D.Positioning the patient to prevent deformity
41. As a result of inadequate production of erythropoietin in chronic renal failure, patient develops
A. Acidosis
B.Anaemia
C. Calcium and phosphorus
D. Sodium and water retention
42. The quickest and most effective method of removing uremic waste products from the body when the kidneys are unable to do so in cases of hyperkalaemia, hypercalcaemia, hepatic coma and uraemia is
A.
Haemodialysis B. Paracenthesis abdominis
C. Pericardiocenthesis
D. Peritoneal dialysis
43. The nurse should administer nasogastric tube feeding slowly to reduce the hazard of
A. Abdominal distension
B. Flatulence
C. Indigestion
D.Regurgitation
44. Urinary retention with overflow is evidenced by
A. Continual continence
B. Decreased urinary production
C. Frequent voiding
D. Oliguria and oedema
45. The most indicative symptoms of increased intracranial pressure includes
A. Rapid weak pulse, fall in blood press, hypothermia
B. Slow bounding pulse, fall in blood pressure. Hyperthermia
C. Slow bounding pulse, rising blood pressure. Hyperthermia
D.Weak, rapid pulse, normal blood pressure, intermittent fever
46. People should be taught to avoid food products in bulged cans because they might contain
A. Clostridia tetani
B.Clostridia botulinum
C. Escherichia coli
D. Salmonella
47. The gland that manufactures, stores, alters and excretes a large number of substances involved in metabolism in the body is
A. Adrenal
B.Liver
C. Pancreas
D. Thyroid
48. Prophylaxis for Hepatitis B includes
A. Avoiding expired tin food
B. Observing food hygiene
C. Preventing constipation
D.Screening of blood donors
49. A patient who has CVA with a right hemiplegia should not have his blood pressure checked using the right arm because circulatory impairment may
A. Cause excessive pressure on the brachial artery
B. Hinder restoration of function
C. Precipitate the formation of thrombus
D.Produce inaccurate readings
50. Risk factors associated with apoplexy in the elderly patient may include
A. Continuous nervousness
B. Glaucoma
C. Hypothyroidism
D.Transient ischaemic attack
51. The vitamin needed by the liver for the synthesis of prothrombin and some other clotting factors is
A. A
B. D
C. E
D.K
52. Before a tuberculosis patient is declared non – infective, the nurse must ensure that
A. No acid fast bacteria are in the sputum
B. The patient no longer has the disease
C. The patient’s temperature is normal
D.The tuberculin skin test is negative
53. The risk of osteoporosis is increased when an individual
A. Engages in strenuous physical activities
B. Has a history of hypoparathyroidism
C. Receives long – term steroid therapy
D. Takes excessive amounts of oestrogen
54. When teaching a patient with a cardiac problem on reduction of saturated fats in the diet, she should be instructed to avoid
A. Corn oil
B. Fish
C. Soft margarine
D.Whole milk
55. When emphysema is present, there is decrease oxygen supply because of
A. Infectious obstructions
B.Loss of aerating surface
C. Pleural effusion
D. Respiratory muscle paralysis
56. The use of amino – acids from protein for gluconeogenesis results in the formation of...... as by product.
A. Ammonia
B. Fatty acids
C. Ketone bodies
D. Lipoproteins
57. Hydrocortisone is injected into the knee joint of a patient with rheumatoid arthritis in order to
A. Prevent ankylosis of the joint
B. Provide physiotherapy
C. Reduce inflammation
D. Relieve pain
58. A patient’s laboratory report shows acid – fast rods in his sputum. These rods are presumed to be
A. Bordetella pertussis
B. Diphtheria bacillus
C. Influenza virus
D.Mycobacterium tuberculosis
59. Dietary modification regimen allowed for patients with ascites and hepatic dysfunction is
A. High carbohydrate, low sodium
B. High protein, low carbohydrate
C. High sodium, low protein
D. High sodium, high carbohydrate
60. Symptoms of portal hypertension are chiefly the results of
A. Fatty degeneration of kupffer cells
B. Infection of the liver parenchyma
C. Obstruction of the cystic and hepatic ducts
D.Obstruction of the portal circulation
61. One cause of spontaneous pneumothorax in a patient with emphysema is a
A. Pleural friction rub
B. Puncture wound of the chest wall
C. Rupture of subpleura bleb
D. Tracheooesophageal fistula
62. The nurse encourages the patient to void before paracenthesis abdominis to
A. Encourage patient to sit upright
B. Maintain the sterility of the procedure
C. Minimise bleeding at the puncture site
D.Minimise the risk of bladder puncture
63. To help a patient obtain a maximum benefit after postural drainage, the nurse should
A. Administer the oxygen PRN
B.Encouraged the patient to cough deeply
C. Encourage the patient to rest for 30 minutes
D. Place the patient in a sitting position
64. Normal renal function is necessary for the maintenance of
A. Bicarbonate
B. Calcium
C. Potassium
D. Sodium
65. When caring for a patient with Hepatitis A, the nursed should take special precaution to
A. Prevent droplets spread of the infection
B. Use caution when bringing food to the patient
C. Use gloves when removing the patient’s bedpan
D. Wear mask and gown before entering his room
66. One of the commonest complications of chronic asthma is
A. Atelectasis
B. Emphysema
C. Pneumothorax
D. Pulmonary fibrosis
67. Paracenthesis is the removal of fluid (ascites) from the
A. Abdominal cavity
B. Pleural cavity
C. Peritoneal cavity
D. Peritoneum
68. Which of the following is not undertaken to assess fluid status?
A. Abdominal girth
B. Daily weight check
C. Elevation of lower extremities
D. Intake and output
69. The nurse should expect a patient with bradycardia to have a
A. Grossly irregular heart beat
B. Heartbeat that has regular skipped beats
C. Heart rate of over 90 per minute
D.Heart rate of under 60 per minute
70. Oesophageal varices are dilated tortuous veins usually found in the sub mucosa of the
A. Lower oesophagus
B. Mid oesophagus
C. Upper oesophagus
D. Whole of oesophagus
71. Koilonychia is a condition of the nails which occurs in
A. Blood calcium depletion
B. Chronic bronchial asthma
C. Iron deficiency anaemia
D. Osteomyelitis
72. Factors that contribute to haemorrhage in oesophageal varies are the following muscular strain from
I. Carrying heavy objects
II. Coughing
III. Lifting heavy objects
IV.Sneezing
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. I, II and IV
D.II, III and IV
73. A patient is to receive 3000mls of IV fluid in 12 hours. The drop factor is 10 gtt/ml. The nurse should regulate the flow to approximately how many drops per minute?
A. 27 to 29
B. 30 to 32
C. 40 to 42
D. 48 to 50
74. A hormone that regulates reabsorption of calcium and phosphorus is
A. Aldosterone
B.Parathormone
C. Somatostatin
D. Thyroxin
75. A hormone that plays an important role in maintaining a normal fluid balancesis
A. Calcium
B. Parathormone
C. Thyroxin
D.Vasopressin
76. The most practical and efficient way to identify losses in renal function is by means of
A. Clearance test
B. Culture and sensitivity test
C. Glucose tolerance test
D. Routine test
77. Pleuritic pain from irritation of the parietal pleura is best described as
A. Catchy
B. Cutting
C. Pinching
D.Sharp
78. To prevent pulmonary embolism in a patient managed on bed rest, the nurse should
A. Encourage deep breathing and coughing
B. Limit the patient’s fluid intake
C. Teach the patient to move legs when in bed
D. Teach patient to turn in bed from left to right 10 times daily
79. Wheezing is high – pitched musical sound heard mainly on
A. Coughing
B.Expiration
C. Inspiration
D. Whistling
80. Cyanosis appears when there is at least.............of unoxygenated blood
A. 5g/dL
B. 8g/dL
C. 10g/dL
D. 15g/dL
81. Patients with severe hepatitis should eat foods containing very little or no protein. This is to prevent
A. Hepatic cirrhosis
B. Hepatic coma
C. Portal hypertension
D. Stone formation in the common bile duct
82. The bluish colouring of the skin in respiratory condition is known as
A. Clubbing
B.Cyanosis
C. Dyspnoea
D. Haemoptysis
83. A patient with ascites is scheduled for paracenthesis abdominis. Before the procedure, the nurse instruct the patient to
A. Assume the supine position
B. Eat foods low in fats
C. Empty bladder
D. Remain nil per os for 24 hours
84. A patient is diagnosed of mal absorption syndrome. Patient’s condition should improve drastically after the administration of
A. A gluten – free diet
B. Corticotrophin preparations
C. Folic acid
D.Vitamin B12
85. A negative HIV test means that one
I. Does not have the antibodies in his blood
II. Has not been infected with the virus
III. Has been infected with virus but has not yet produced antibodies
IV.Is immune to the virus
A. I, II and III
B. I, III and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
86. In acute pharyngitis, a sudden inflammation of the pharynx is more common in patients aged
A. 1 – 4 years
B.5 – 15 years
C. 25 – 30 years
D. 35 – 40 years
87. Black water fever is characterised by
A. Coffee ground vomiting
B.Dark red urine
C. Diarrhoea
D. Low grade fever
88. The following are characteristic of nephritic syndrome EXCEPT
A. Ascites
B.Hyperalbuminaemia
C. Hypoalbuminaemia
D. Proteinuria
89. One mechanism of action of antiretroviral drugs is
A. Increasing the lifespan of the red blood cells
B. Killing the HIV
C. Neutralising the toxins produced by the HIV
D. Preventing the production of HIV
90. Bruit is a vascular sound that resembles
A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Atrial regurgitation
C. Heart murmur
D. Stridor
91. Acromegaly is produced by an over secretion of
A. Adrenocorticotrophin
B.Growth hormone
C. Testosterone
D. Thyroid hormone
92. What blood type is considered the universal donor?
A. A negative
B. B negative
C. AB negative
D.O negative
93. Antiretroviral therapy is recommended for positive HIV patients
A. Who are manifesting signs and symptoms of AIDS
B. Who have development opportunistic infections
C. Whose CD4 counts are below 500
D. Whose helper T – cells lymphocytes count are above 800
94. What blood type is considered the universal recipient?
A. A positive
B. B positive
C. AB positive
D. Opositive
95. Oral hypoglycaemic agents may be used for patients with
A. Ketosis
B. Obesity
C. Type 1 diabetes
D.Type 2 diabetes
96. What urine pH level is considered normal?
A. 4 to 8
B.4.5 to 8
C. 4 to 7
D. 4.5to 7
97. A severe incapacitating chest pain is referred to as
A. Intractable or refractory angina
B. Stable angina
C. Unstable angina
D. Variant angina
98. Diabetic coma results from an excess accumulation in the blood of
A. Glucose from rapid carbohydrate metabolism
B. Ketones from rapid fat metabolism causing acidosis
C. Nitrogen from protein catabolism causing ammonia intoxication
D. Sodium bicarbonate causing alkalosis
99. One of the complications of malaria is
A. Bronchopneumonia
B. Conjunctivitis
C. Fever
D.Splenomegaly
100. Clinical manifestation of pulmonary congestion include all the following EXCEPT
A. Cough
B. Dyspnoea
C. Nausea
D. Pulmonary crackles
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