901 - 1000 Solved NCLEX Styled Practical MCQ Test Questions Bank

901. A client is admitted to the emergency room after falling down a flight of stairs. Initial assessment reveals a large bump on the front of the head and a two-inch laceration above the right eye. Which finding is consistent with injury to the frontal lobe?
A. Complaints of blindness
B. Decreased respiratory rate and depth
C. Failure to recognize touch
D. Inability to identify sweet taste

902. The nurse is evaluating the intake and output of a client for the first 12 hours following an abdominal cholecystectomy. Which finding should be reported to the physician?
A. Output of 10mL from the Jackson-Pratt drain
B. Foley catheter output of 285mL
C. Nasogastric tube output of 150mL
D. Absence of stool

903. A community health nurse is teaching healthful lifestyles to a group of senior citizens. The nurse knows that the leading cause of death in persons 65 and older is:
A. Chronic pulmonary disease
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Pneumonia
D. Heart disease

904. A client suspected of having Alzheimer’s dementia is evaluated using the Mini-Mental State Examination. At the beginning of the evaluation, the examiner names three objects. Later in the evaluation, he asks the client to name the same three objects. The examiner is testing the client’s:
A. Attention
B. Orientation
C. Recall
D. Registration

905. A client with end stage renal disease is being managed with peritoneal dialysis. If the dialysate return is slowed the nurse should tell the client to:
A. Irrigate the dialyzing catheter with saline.
B. Skip the next scheduled infusion.
C. Gently retract the dialyzing catheter.
D. Change position or turn side to side.

906. The nurse is the first person to arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle accident. When rendering aid to the victim, the nurse should give priority to:
A. Establishing a patent airway
B. Checking the quality of respirations
C. Observing for signs of active bleeding
D. Determining the level of consciousness

907. A client hospitalized with renal calculi complains of severe pain in the right flank. In addition to complaints of pain, the nurse can expect to see changes in the client’s vital signs that include:
A. Decreased pulse rate
B. Increased blood pressure
C. Decreased respiratory rate
D. Increased temperature

908. The nurse is using the Glascow coma scale to assess the client’s motor response. The nurse places pressure at the base of the client’s fingernail for 20 seconds. The client’s only response is withdrawal of his hand. The nurse interprets the client’s response as:
A. A score of 6 because he follows commands
B. A score of 5 because he localizes pain
C. A score of 4 because he uses flexion
D. A score of 3 because he uses extension

909. A four-year-old is admitted to the hospital for treatment of Kawasaki’s disease. The medication commonly prescribed for the treatment of Kawasaki’s disease is:
A. Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid)
B. Benadryl (diphenhydramine)
C. Polycillin (ampicillin)
D. Betaseron (interferon beta)

910. The nurse is caring for a client with bulimia nervosa. The nurse recognizes that the major difference in the client with anorexia nervosa and the client with bulimia nervosa is the client with bulimia:
A. Is usually grossly overweight.
B. Has a distorted body image.
C. Recognizes that she has an eating disorder.
D. Struggles with issues of dependence versus independence.

911. The Mantoux text is used to determine whether a person has been exposed to tuberculosis. If the test is positive, the nurse will find a:
A. Fluid-filled vesicle
B. Sharply demarcated erythema
C. Central area of induration
D. Circular blanched area

912. The physician has ordered continuous bladder irrigation for a client following a prostatectomy. The nurse should:
A. Hang the solution 2–3 feet above the client’s abdomen.
B. Allow air from the solution tubing to flow into the catheter.
C. Use a clean technique when attaching the solution tubing to the catheter.
D. Clamp the solution tubing periodically to prevent bladder distention.

913. A pediatric client is admitted to the hospital for treatment of diarrhea caused by an infection with salmonella. Which of the following most likely contributed to the child’s illness?
A. Brushing the family dog
B. Playing with a turtle
C. Taking a pony ride
D. Feeding the family cat

914. Which one of the following infants needs a further assessment of growth?
A. Four-month-old: birth weight 7lb, 6oz; current weight 14lb, 4oz
B. Two-week-old: birth weight 6lb, 10oz; current weight 6lb, 12oz
C. Six-month-old: birth weight 8lb, 8oz; current weight 15lb
D. Two-month-old: birth weight 7lb, 2oz; current weight 9lb, 6oz

915. The physician has ordered Pyridium (phenazopyridine) for a client with urinary urgency. The nurse should tell the client that:
A. The urine will have a strong odor of ammonia.
B. The urinary output will increase in amount.
C. The urine will have a red-orange color.
D. The urinary output will decrease in amount.

916. The nurse is teaching the mother of a six-month-old with eczema. Which instruction should be included in the nurse’s teaching?
A. Dress the infant warmly to prevent undue chilling.
B. Cut the infant’s fingernails and toenails regularly.
C. Use bubble bath instead of soap for bathing the infant.
D. Wash the infant’s clothes with mild detergent and fabric softener.

917. Skeletal traction is applied to the right femur of a client injured in a fall. The primary purpose of the skeletal traction is to:
A. Realign the tibia and fibula.
B. Provide traction on the muscles.
C. Provide traction on the ligaments.
D. Realign femoral bone fragments.

918. The home health nurse is visiting a client with an exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis. To prevent deformities of the knee joints, the nurse should:
A. Tell the client to walk without bending the knees.
B. Encourage movement within the limits of pain.
C. Instruct the client to sit only in a recliner.
D. Tell the client to remain in bed as long as the joints are painful.

919. The physician has ordered Dextrose 5% in normal saline for an infant admitted with gastroenteritis. The advantage of administering the infant’s IV through a scalp vein is:
A. The infant can be held and comforted more easily.
B. Dextrose is best absorbed from the scalp veins.
C. Scalp veins do not infiltrate like peripheral veins.
D. There are few pain receptors in the infant’s scalp.

920. A newborn diagnosed with bilateral choanal atresia is scheduled for surgery soon after delivery. The nurse recognizes the immediate need for surgery because the newborn:
A. Will have difficulty swallowing
B. Will be unable to pass meconium
C. Will regurgitate his feedings
D. Will be unable to breathe through his nose

921. The most appropriate means of rehydration of a seven-month-old with diarrhea and mild dehydration is:
A. Oral rehydration therapy with an electrolyte solution
B. Replacing milk-based formula with a lactose-free formula
C. Administering intraveneous Dextrose 5% 1/4 normal saline
D. Offering bananas, rice, and applesauce along with oral fluids

922. The nurse is caring for an infant receiving intravenous fluid. Signs of fluid overload in an infant include:
A. Swelling of the hands and increased temperature
B. Increased heart rate and increased blood pressure
C. Swelling of the feet and increased temperature
D. Decreased heart rate and decreased blood pressure

923. Most parents of infants with Wilms tumor report finding the mass when:
A. The infant is diapered or bathed.
B. The infant is unable to use his arms.
C. The infant is unable to follow a moving object.
D. The infant is unable to vocalize sounds.

924. An obstetrical client has just been diagnosed with cardiac disease. The nurse should give priority to:
A. Instructing the client to remain on strict bed rest
B. Telling the client to monitor her pulse and respirations
C. Instructing the client to check her temperature in the evening
D. Telling the client to weigh herself monthly

925. The effectiveness of the oxygen therapy is best determined by:
A. The rate of respirations
B. The absence of cyanosis
C. Arterial blood gases
D. The level of consciousness

926. A client having a colonoscopy is medicated with Versed (midazolam). The nurse recognizes that the client:
A. Will be able to remember the procedure within 2–3 hours
B. Will not be able to remember having the procedure done
C. Will be able to remember the procedure within 2–3 days
D. Will not be able to remember what occurred before the procedure

927. The nurse is assessing a client with an altered level of consciousness. One of the first signs of altered level of consciousness is:
A. Inability to perform motor activities
B. Complaints of double vision
C. Restlessness
D. Unequal pupil size

928. Four clients are to receive medication. Which client should receive medication first?
A. A client with an apical pulse of 72 receiving Lanoxin (digoxin) PO daily
B. A client with abdominal surgery receiving Phenergan (promethazine) IM every four hours PRN for nausea and vomiting
C. A client with labored respirations receiving a stat dose of IV Lasix (furosemide)
D. A client with pneumonia receiving Polycillin (ampicillin) IVPB every six hours

929. The nurse is caring for a cognitively impaired client who begins to pull at the tape securing his IV site. To lessen the likelihood of the client dislodging the IV, the nurse should:
A. Place tape completely around the extremity, with taped ends out of the client’s vision.
B. Tell him that if he pulls out the IV, it will have to be restarted.
C. Apply clove hitch restraints to the client’s hands.
D. Wrap the IV site loosely with Kerlix to remove it from his site.

930. A client is admitted to the emergency room with complaints of substernal chest pain radiating to the left jaw. Which ECG finding is suggestive of acute myocardial infarction?
A. Peaked P wave
B. Changes in ST segment
C. Minimal QRS wave
D. Prominent U wave

931. The nurse is caring for a client with a closed reduction of a fractured femur. Which finding should the nurse report to the physician?
A. Chest pain and shortness of breath
B. Ecchymosis on the side of the injured leg
C. Oral temperature of 99.2°F
D. Complaints of level two pain on a scale of five

932. The physician has ordered a guaiac test for a client with a history of intestinal polyps. Which instruction should be given to the client regarding his diet prior to the test?
A. Increase the intake of whole grains and cereals.
B. Limit the intake of dairy products.
C. Avoid citrus juices and vitamin C.
D. Increase foods containing omega 3 oils.

933. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of renal calculi. The nurse should give priority to:
A. Initiating an intravenous infusion
B. Encouraging oral fluids
C. Administering pain medication
D. Straining the urine

934. The Joint Commission for Accreditation of Hospital Organizations (JCAHO) specifies that two client identifiers are to be used before administering medication. Which method is best for identifying patients using two patient identifiers?
A. Take the medication administration record (MAR) to the room and compare it with the name and medical number recorded on the armband.
B. Compare the medication administration record (MAR) with the client’s room number and name on the armband.
C. Request that a family member identify the client and then ask the client to state his name.
D. Ask the client to state his full name and then to write his full name.

935. A client complains of sharp, stabbing pain in the right lower quadrant that is graded as level 8 on a scale of 10. The nurse knows that pain of this severity can best be managed using:
A. Aleve (naproxen sodium)
B. Tylenol with codeine (acetaminophen with codeine)
C. Toradol (ketorolac)
D. Morphine sulfate (morphine sulfate)

936. A client has had diarrhea for the past three days. Which acid/base imbalance would the nurse expect the client to have?
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Respiratory acidosis

937. The nurse is planning the diet of a client who is recovering from acute pancreatitis. The nurse should select foods that are:
A. High in carbohydrate and protein
B. Low in sodium but high fat
C. High in protein and sodium
D. Low in fat and low protein

938. The nurse is reviewing the lab reports of a client who is HIV positive. Which lab report provides information regarding the effectiveness of the client’s medication regimen?
A. ELISA
B. Western Blot
C. Viral load
D. CD4 count

939. A client taking antiretroviral drugs reports his last blood work showed a drop of 3 units in the viral load. The nurse understands that:
A. The virus is no longer detectable.
B. 90% of the viral load has been eliminated.
C. 95% of the viral load has been eliminated.
D. 99% of the viral load has been eliminated.

940. The nurse is caring for a client with suspected AIDS dementia complex. The first sign of dementia in the client with AIDS is:
A. Changes in gait
B. Loss of concentration
C. Problems with speech
D. Seizures

941. The physician has ordered Activase (alteplase) for a client admitted with a myocardial infarction. The desired effect of Activase is:
A. Prevention of congestive heart failure
B. Stabilization of the clot
C. Increased tissue oxygenation
D. Destruction of the clot

942. The mother of a two-year-old asks the nurse when she should schedule her son’s first dental visit. The nurse’s response is based on the knowledge that most children have all their deciduous teeth by:
A. 15 months
B. 18 months
C. 24 months
D. 30 months

943. The nurse is caring for a child with Down syndrome. Which characteristics are commonly found in the child with Down syndrome?
A. Fragile bones, blue sclera, and brittle teeth
B. Epicanthal folds, broad hands, and transpalmar creases
C. Low posterior hairline, webbed neck, and short stature
D. Developmental regression and cherry-red macula

944. After several hospitalizations for respiratory ailments, a six-month-old has been diagnosed as having HIV. The infant’s respiratory ailments were most likely due to:
A. Pneumocystis jiroveci
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. Cryptosporidiosis
D. Herpes simplex

945. A client has returned from having a bronchoscopy. Before offering the client sips of water, the nurse should assess the client’s:
A. Blood pressure
B. Pupilary response
C. Gag reflex
D. Pulse rate

946. The physician has ordered injections of Neumega (oprelvekin) for a client receiving chemotherapy for prostate cancer. Which finding suggests that the medication is having its desired effect?
A. Hct 12.8g
B. Platelets 250,000mm^3
C. Neutrophils 4,000mm^3
D. RBC 4.7 million

947. A child suspected of having cystic fibrosis is scheduled for a quantitative sweat test. The nurse knows that the quantitative sweat test will be analyzed using:
A. Pilocarpine iontophoresis
B. Chloride iontophoresis
C. Sodium iontophoresis
D. Potassium iontophoresis

948. A client is caring for a client with a Brown-Sequard spinal cord injury. The nurse should expect the client to have:
A. Total loss of motor, sensory, and reflex activity
B. Incomplete loss of motor function
C. Loss of sensory function with potential for recovery
D. Loss of sensation on the side opposite the injury

949. A client with cirrhosis has developed signs of hepatorenal syndrome. Which diet is most appropriate for the client at this time?
A. High protein, moderate sodium
B. High carbohydrate, moderate sodium
C. Low protein, low sodium
D. Low carbohydrate, high protein

950. The nurse is caring for a client with a basal cell epithelioma. The primary cause of basal cell epithelioma is:
A. Sun exposure
B. Smoking
C. Ingestion of alcohol
D. Food preservatives

951. A client with in situ bladder cancer is receiving intravesical therapy using BCG. During treatment, the nurse should:
A. Ask the client to remain still after the medication is instilled.
B. Offer the client additional oral fluids.
C. Ask the client to change positions every fifteen minutes.
D. Ask the client to void every hour.

952. A client is receiving a blood transfusion following surgery. In the event of a transfusion reaction, any unused blood should be:
A. Sealed and discarded in a red bag
B. Flushed down the client’s commode
C. Sealed and discarded in the sharp’s container
D. Returned to the blood bank

953. The physician has ordered a trivalent botulism antitoxin for a client with botulism poisoning. Before administering the medication, the nurse should assess the client for a history of allergies to:
A. Eggs
B. Horses
C. Shellfish
D. Pork

954. The physician has ordered increased oral hydration for a client with renal calculi. Unless contraindicated, the recommended oral intake for helping with the removal of renal calculi is:
A. 75mL per hour
B. 100mL per hour
C. 150mL per hour
D. 200mL per hour

955. The nurse is caring for a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome who has oral candidiasis. The nurse should clean the client’s mouth using:
A. A toothbrush
B. A soft gauze pad
C. Antiseptic mouthwash
D. Lemon and glycerin swabs

956. A client taking anticoagulant medication has developed a cardiac tamponade. Which finding is associated with cardiac tamponade?
A. A decrease in systolic blood pressure during inspiration
B. An increase in diastolic blood pressure during expiration
C. An increase in systolic blood pressure during inspiration
D. A decrease in diastolic blood pressure during expiration

957. The nurse is preparing a client for discharge following the removal of a cataract. The nurse should tell the client to:
A. Take aspirin for discomfort
B. Avoid bending over to put on his shoes
C. Remove the eye shield before going to sleep
D. Continue showering as usual

958. The physician has ordered Pentam (pentamidine) IV for a client with pneumocystis jiroveci. While receiving the medication, the nurse should carefully monitor the client’s:
A. Blood pressure
B. Temperature
C. Heart rate
D. Respirations

959. Intra-arterial chemotherapy primarily benefits the client by applying greater concentrations of medication directly to the malignant tumor. An additional benefit of intra-arterial chemotherapy is:
A. Prevention of nausea and vomiting
B. Treatment of micro-metastasis
C. Eradication of bone pain
D. Prevention of therapy-induced anemia

960. The physician has ordered Myochrysine (gold sodium thiomalate) for a client with rheumatoid arthritis. Before administering the client’s medication, the nurse should:
A. Check the lab work.
B. Administer an antiemetic.
C. Obtain the blood pressure.
D. Administer a sedative.

961. The nurse is caring for a client following a Whipple procedure. The nurse notes that the drainage from the nasogastric tube is bile tinged in appearance and has increased in the past hour. The nurse should:
A. Document the finding and continue to monitor the client.
B. Irrigate the drainage tube with 10mL of normal saline.
C. Decrease the amount of intermittent suction.
D. Notify the physician of the findings.

962. A client with AIDS tells the nurse that he regularly takes echinacea to boost his immune system. The nurse should tell the client that:
A. Herbals can interfere with the action of antiviral medication.
B. Supplements have proven effective in prolonging life.
C. Herbals have been shown to decrease the viral load.
D. Supplements appear to prevent replication of the virus.

963. A client with rheumatoid arthritis has Sjogren’s syndrome. The nurse can help relieve the symptoms of Sjogren’s syndrome by:
A. Providing heat to the joints
B. Instilling eyedrops
C. Administering pain medication
D. Providing small, frequent meals

964. Which one of the following symptoms is common in the client with duodenal ulcers?
A. Vomiting shortly after eating
B. Epigastric pain following meals
C. Frequent bouts of diarrhea
D. Presence of blood in the stools

965. A client with end-stage renal failure receives hemodialysis via an arteriovenous fistula (AV) placed in the right arm. When caring for the client, the nurse should:
A. Take the blood pressure in the right arm above the AV fistula.
B. Flush the AV fistula with IV normal saline to keep it patent.
C. Auscultate the AV fistula for the presence of a bruit.
D. Perform needed venopunctures distal to the AV fistula.

966. The nurse is reviewing the lab results of four clients. Which finding should be reported to the physician?
A. A client with chronic renal failure with a serum creatinine of 5.6mg/dL
B. A client with rheumatic fever with a positive C reactive protein
C. A client with gastroenteritis with a hematocrit of 52%
D. A client with epilepsy with a white cell count of 3,800mm^3

967. The physician has prescribed a Becloforte (beclomethasone) inhaler two puffs twice a day for a client with asthma. The nurse should tell the client to report:
A. Increased weight
B. A sore throat
C. Difficulty in sleeping
D. Changes in mood

968. A client treated for depression has developed symptoms of serotonin syndrome. The nurse recognizes that serotonin syndrome might result when the client takes both a prescribed antidepressant and:
A. St. John’s wort
B. Ginko biloba
C. Black cohosh
D. Saw palmetto

969. The nurse is caring for a client following a transphenoidal hypophysectomy. Post-operatively, the nurse should:
A. Provide the client a toothbrush for mouth care.
B. Check the nasal dressing for the “halo sign.”
C. Tell the client to cough forcibly every two hours.
D. Ambulate the client when he is fully awake.

970. The physician has inserted an esophageal balloon tamponade in a client with bleeding esophageal varices. The nurse should maintain the esophageal balloon at a pressure of:
A. 5–10mmHg
B. 10–15mmHg
C. 15–20mmHg
D. 20–25mmHg

971. The nurse is caring for a client with Lyme disease. The nurse should carefully monitor the client for signs of neurological complications, which include:
A. Complaints of a “drawing” sensation and paralysis on one side of the face
B. Presence of an unsteady gait, intention tremor, and facial weakness
C. Complaints of excruciating facial pain brought on by talking, smiling, or eating
D. Presence of fatigue when talking, dysphagia, and involuntary facial twitching

972. When caring for the child with autistic disorder, the nurse should:
A. Take the child to the playroom to be with peers.
B. Assign a consistent caregiver.
C. Place the child in a ward with other children.
D. Assign several staff members to provide care.

973. A client is admitted with suspected pernicious anemia. Which findings support the diagnosis of pernicious anemia?
A. The client complains of feeling tired and listless.
B. The client has waxy, pale skin.
C. The client exhibits loss of coordination and position sense.
D. The client has a rapid pulse rate and a detectable heart murmur.

974. The physician has prescribed Cyclogel (cyclopentolate hydrochloride) drops for a client following a scleral buckling. The nurse knows that the purpose of the medication is to:
A. Rest the muscles of accommodation
B. Prevent post-operative infection
C. Constrict the pupils
D. Reduce the production of aqueous humor

975. Which finding is associated with secondary syphilis?
A. Painless, papular lesions on the perineum, fingers, and eyelids
B. Absence of lesions
C. Deep asymmetrical granulomatous lesions
D. Well-defined generalized lesions on the palms, soles, and perineum

976. A client is transferred to the intensive care unit following a coronary artery bypass graft. Which one of the post-surgical assessments should be reported to the physician?
A. Urine output of 50ml in the past hour
B. Temperature of 99°F
C. Strong pedal pulses bilaterally
D. Central venous pressure 15mmH2O

977. Which symptom is not associated with glaucoma?
A. Veil-like loss of vision
B. Foggy loss of vision
C. Seeing halos around lights
D. Complaints of eye pain

978. When caring for a ventilator-dependent client who is receiving tube feedings, the nurse can help prevent aspiration of gastric secretions by:
A. Keeping the head of the bed flat
B. Elevating the head of the bed 30–45°
C. Placing the client on his left side
D. Raising the foot of the bed 10–20°

979. When gathering evidence from a victim of rape, the nurse should place the victim’s clothing in a:
A. Plastic zip-lock bag
B. Rubber tote
C. Paper bag
D. Padded manila envelope

980. The nurse on an orthopedic unit is assigned to care for four clients with displaced bone fractures. Which client will not be treated with the use of traction?
A. A client with fractures of the femur
B. A client with fractures of the cervical spine
C. A client with fractures of the humerus
D. A client with fractures of the ankle

981. A client is hospitalized with an acute myocardial infarction. Which nursing diagnosis reflects an understanding of the cause of acute myocardial infarction?
A. Decreased cardiac output related to damage to the myocardium
B. Impaired tissue perfusion related to an occlusion in the coronary vessels
C. Acute pain related to cardiac ischemia
D. Ineffective breathing patterns related to decreased oxygen to the tissues

982. The nurse in the emergency department is responsible for the triage of four recently admitted clients. Which client should the nurse send directly to the treatment room?
A. A 23-year-old female complaining of headache and nausea
B. A 76-year-old male complaining of dysuria
C. A 56-year-old male complaining of exertional shortness of breath
D. A 42-year-old female complaining of recent sexual assault

983. The physician has ordered an injection of morphine for a client with post-operative pain. Before administering the medication, it is essential that the nurse assess the client’s:
A. Heart rate
B. Respirations
C. Temperature
D. Blood pressure

984. The nurse is caring for a client with a closed head injury. A late sign of increased intracranial pressure is:
A. Changes in pupil equality and reactivity
B. Restlessness and irritability
C. Complaints of headache
D. Nausea and vomiting

985. The newly licensed nurse has been asked to perform a procedure that he feels unqualified to perform. The nurse’s best response at this time is to:
A. Attempt to perform the procedure.
B. Refuse to perform the procedure and give a reason for the refusal.
C. Request to observe a similar procedure and then attempt to complete the procedure.
D. Agree to perform the procedure if the client is willing.

986. A client is admitted to the emergency department with complaints of crushing chest pain that radiates to the left jaw. After obtaining a stat electrocardiogram the nurse should:
A. Obtain a history of prior cardiac problems
B. Begin an IV using a large-bore catheter
C. Administer oxygen at 2L per minute via nasal cannula
D. Perform pupil checks for size and reaction to light

987. Which of the following techniques is recommended for removing a tick from the skin?
A. Grasping the tick with a tissue and quickly jerking it away from the skin
B. Placing a burning match close the tick and watching for it to release
C. Using tweezers, grasp the tick close to the skin and pull the tick free using a steady, firm motion
D. Covering the tick with petroleum jelly and gently rubbing the area until the tick releases

988. A nurse is observing a local softball game when one of the players is hit in the nose with a ball. The player’s nose is visibly deformed and bleeding. The best way for the nurse to control the bleeding is to:
A. Tilt the head back and pinch the nostrils.
B. Apply a wrapped ice compress to the nose.
C. Pack the nose with soft, clean tissue.
D. Tilt the head forward and pinch the nostrils.

989. What is the responsibility of the nurse in obtaining an informed consent for surgery?
A. Describing in a clear and simply stated manner what the surgery will involve
B. Explaining the benefits, alternatives, and possible risks and complications of surgery
C. Using the nurse/client relationship to persuade the client to sign the operative permit
D. Providing the informed consent for surgery and witnessing the client’s signature

990. During the change of shift report, the nurse states that the client’s last pulse strength was a 1+. The oncoming nurse recognizes that the client’s pulse was:
A. Bounding
B. Full
C. Normal
D. Weak

991. The RN is making assignments for the day. Which one of the following duties can be assigned to the unlicensed assistive personnel?
A. Notifying the physician of an abnormal lab value
B. Providing routine catheter care with soap and water
C. Administering two aspirin to a client with a headache
D. Setting the rate of an infusion of normal saline

992. The nurse is observing the respirations of a client when she notes that the respiratory cycle is marked by periods of apnea lasting from 10 seconds to one minute. The apnea is followed by respirations that gradually increase in depth and frequency. The nurse should document that the client is experiencing:
A. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
B. Kussmaul respirations
C. Biot respirations
D. Diaphragmatic respirations

993. A client seen in the doctor’s office for complaints of nausea and vomiting is sent home with directions to follow a clear-liquid diet for the next 24–48 hours. Which of the following is not permitted on a clear-liquid diet?
A. Sweetened tea
B. Chicken broth
C. Ice cream
D. Orange gelatin

994. When administering a tuberculin skin test, the nurse should insert the needle at a:
A. 15° angle
B. 30° angle
C. 45° angle
D. 90° angle

995. The nurse is preparing to discharge a client following a trabeculoplasty for the treatment of glaucoma. The nurse should instruct the client to:
A. Wash her eyes with baby shampoo and water twice a day
B. Take only tub baths for the first month following surgery
C. Begin using her eye makeup again one week after surgery
D. Wear eye protection for several months after surgery

996. Which type of endotracheal tube is recommended by the Centers for Disease Control (CDC) for reducing the risk of ventilator-associated pneumonia?
A. Uncuffed
B. CASS
C. Fenestrated
D. Nasotracheal

997. Which client is at greatest risk for complications following abdominal surgery?
A. A 68-year-old obese client with non-insulin-dependent diabetes
B. A 27-year-old client with a recent history of urinary tract infections
C. A 16-year-old client who smokes a half-pack of cigarettes per day
D. A 40-year-old client who exercises regularly, with no history of medical conditions

998. The nurse is preparing a client for surgery. Which lab finding should be reported to the physician?
A. Potassium 2.5mEq/L
B. Hemoglobin 14.5g/dL
C. Blood glucose 75mg/dL
D. White cell count 8,000mm^3

999. A client is diagnosed with bleeding from the upper gastrointestinal system. The nurse would expect the client’s stools to be:
A. Brown
B. Black
C. Clay colored
D. Green

1000. In order to reduce the risk of hypotension and “red man syndrome” infusions of Vancocin (vancomycin) should be administered:
A. Within 15 minutes
B. Only after giving Benadryl (diphenhydramine)
C. Over one hour
D. With Zantac (ranitidine) or other histamine blocker