301 - 400 Solved NCLEX Styled Practical MCQ Test Questions Bank

301. The patient states, “My stomach hurts about two hours after I eat.” Based upon this information, the nurse suspects the patient likely has a:
A. Gastric ulcer
B. Duodenal ulcer
C. Peptic ulcer
D. Curling’s ulcer

302. The nurse is caring for a patient with suspected diverticulitis. The nurse would be most prudent in questioning an order for which of the following diagnostic tests?
A. Abdominal ultrasound
B. Barium enema
C. Complete blood count
D. Computed tomography (CT) scan

303. The nurse is planning care for the patient with celiac disease. In teaching about the diet, the nurse should instruct the patient to avoid which of the following for breakfast?
A. Puffed wheat
B. Banana
C. Puffed rice
D. Cornflakes

304. The nurse is teaching about irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which of the following would be most important?
A. Reinforcing the need for a balanced diet
B. Encouraging the client to drink 16 ounces of fluid with each meal
C. Telling the client to eat a diet low in fiber
D. Instructing the client to limit his intake of fruits and vegetables

305. In planning care for the patient with ulcerative colitis, the nurse identifies which nursing diagnosis as a priority?
A. Anxiety
B. Impaired skin integrity
C. Fluid volume deficit
D. Nutrition altered, less than body requirements

306. The patient is prescribed metronidazole (Flagyl) for adjunct treatment for a duodenal ulcer. When teaching about this medication, the nurse would include:
A. This medication should be taken only until you begin to feel better.
B. This medication should be taken on an empty stomach to increase absorption.
C. While taking this medication, you do not have to be concerned about being in the sun.
D. While taking this medication, alcoholic beverages and products containing alcohol should be avoided.

307. The nurse is preparing to administer a feeding via a nasogastric tube. The nurse would perform which of the following before initiating the feeding?
A. Assess for tube placement by aspirating stomach content.
B. Place the patient in a left-lying position.
C. Administer feeding with 50% Dextrose.
D. Ensure that the feeding solution has been warmed in a microwave for two minutes.

308. Which is true regarding the administration of antacids?
A. Antacids should be administered without regard to mealtimes.
B. Antacids should be administered with each meal and snack of the day.
C. Antacids should not be administered with other medications.
D. Antacids should be administered with all other medications, for maximal absorption.

309. The nurse is caring for a patient with a colostomy. The patient asks, “Will I ever be able to swim again?” The nurse’s best response would be:
A. Yes, you should be able to swim again, even with the colostomy.
B. You should avoid immersing the colostomy in water.
C. No, you should avoid getting the colostomy wet.
D. Don’t worry about that. You will be able to live just like you did before.

310. The nurse is assisting in the care of a patient who is two days post-operative from a hemorrhoidectomy. The nurse would be correct in instructing the patient to:
A. Avoid a high-fiber diet
B. Continue to apply ice packs
C. Take a laxative daily to prevent constipation
D. Use a sitz bath after each bowel movement

311. The nurse is caring for a client with a recent laparoscopic hemicolectomy. Which finding should be reported to the physician?
A. Sluggish bowel sounds
B. Pain and tenderness at the umbilicus
C. Passage of small amount of liquid stool
D. Increasing abdominal girth

312. A client is newly diagnosed with diabetes. Which nursing diagnosis is a priority at this time?
A. Fluid volume deficit
B. Anxiety
C. Deficient knowledge
D. Activity intolerance

313. Which action by the home health nurse indicates a knowledge of the needs of an elderly client?
A. Teaching regarding availability and services offered by hospice care
B. Speaking in a higher pitched voice tone to facilitate hearing
C. Encouraging fluid restriction to prevent nighttime voiding
D. Reinforcing teaching regarding the prevention of falls

314. The nurse asks a patient about current medications. Which one of the patient’s medications is most likely to cause abdominal pain?
A. Norco (hydrocodone/APAP)
B. Erythrocin (erythromycin)
C. Zyrtec (cetirizine)
D. Aldactone (spironolactone)

315. The nurse is assessing the abdomen. The nurse knows the best sequence to perform the assessment is:
A. Inspection, auscultation, palpation
B. Auscultation, palpation, inspection
C. Palpation, inspection, auscultation
D. Inspection, palpation, auscultation

316. The nurse is caring for the client who has been in a coma for two months. He has signed a donor card, but the wife is opposed to the idea of organ donation. How should the nurse handle the topic of organ donation with the wife?
A. Tell the wife that the hospital will honor her wishes regarding organ donation, but contact the organ-retrieval staff.
B. Tell her that because her husband signed a donor card, the hospital has the right to take the organs upon the death of her husband.
C. Explain that it is necessary for her to donate her husband’s organs because he signed the permit.
D. Refrain from talking about the subject until after the death of her husband.

317. The client with cancer refuses to care for herself. Which action by the nurse would be best?
A. Alternate nurses caring for the client so that the staff will not get tired of caring for this client.
B. Talk to the client and explain the need for self-care.
C. Explore the reason for the lack of motivation seen in the client.
D. Talk to the physician about the client’s lack of motivation.

318. The charge nurse is making assignments for the day. After accepting the assignment to care for a client with leukemia, the nurse tells the charge nurse that her child has chickenpox. Which initial action should the charge nurse take?
A. Change the nurse’s assignment to another client.
B. Explain to the nurse that there is no risk to the client.
C. Ask the nurse if the chickenpox have crusted.
D. Ask the nurse if she has ever had the chickenpox.

319. The nurse is caring for the client with a mastectomy. Which action would be contraindicated?
A. Taking the blood pressure on the side of the mastectomy
B. Elevating the arm on the side of the mastectomy
C. Positioning the client on the unaffected side
D. Performing a fingerstick on the unaffected side

320. The client has an order for Garamycin (gentamicin) to be administered. Which lab test should be done before beginning the medication?
A. Hematocrit
B. Serum creatinine
C. White cell count
D. BUN

321. Which of the following is the best indicator of the diagnosis of HIV?
A. WBC
B. ELISA
C. Western blot
D. CBC

322. The client presents to the emergency room with a “bull’s eye” rash, headache, and arthralgia. Which question would be most appropriate for the nurse to ask the client?
A. Have you found any ticks on your body?
B. Have you had any diarrhea in the last 24 hours?
C. Have you been outside the country in the last six months?
D. Have you had any itching for the past few days?

323. Which client should be assigned to the nursing assistant?
A. The 18-year-old with a fracture to two cervical vertebrae
B. The infant with meningitis with a temperature of 101ºF
C. The elderly client with a thyroidectomy four days ago
D. The client with a thoracotomy two days ago

324. The client presents to the emergency room with a hyphema. Which action by the nurse would be appropriate?
A. Elevate the head of the bed and apply ice to the eye.
B. Place the client in a supine position and apply heat to the knee.
C. Insert a Foley catheter and measure the intake and output.
D. Perform a vaginal exam and check for a discharge

325. The client has an order for Feosol (ferrous sulfate). To promote absorption, the nurse should administer the medication with:
A. Milk
B. A meal
C. Orange juice
D. Undiluted

326. A client with an ileostomy is being discharged. Which teaching should be included in the plan of care?
A. Using Karaya powder to seal the bag
B. Irrigating the ileostomy daily
C. Using Stomahesive as a skin protector
D. Using a stool softener as needed

327. Why is Phytonadione (vitamin K) administered to a newborn shortly after birth?
A. To stop hemorrhage
B. To treat infection
C. To replace electrolytes
D. To facilitate clotting

328. A client is admitted to the postpartal unit with a large amount of lochia rubra, uterine enlargement, and excessive clots. Which medication will likely be ordered for the client?
A. Fentanyl (sublimaze)
B. Stadol (butorphanol)
C. Prepidil (dinoprostone)
D. Hemabate (carboprost tromethamine)

329. Before administering intravenous chemotherapy to the patient being treated, the nurse should:
A. Administer a bolus of IV fluid
B. Administer pain medication
C. Administer an antiemetic
D. Allow the patient a chance to eat

330. The client is admitted to the postpartum unit with an order to continue the infusion of Pitocin (oxytocin). The nurse is aware that Pitocin is working if the fundus is:
A. Deviated to the left
B. Firm and in the midline
C. Boggy
D. Two finger breadths below the umbilicus

331. A patient is diagnosed with secondary syphilis. The nurse can expect the patient to have:
A. “Copper penny” rash on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet
B. Localized tumors in the skin, bones, and liver
C. Chancres and lymphadenopathy
D. General paresis

332. A four-year-old with cystic fibrosis has a prescription for Creon (pancrelipase). The medication is given to:
A. Thin respiratory secretions
B. Promote clotting
C. Assist with digestion
D. Shrink nasal polyps

333. The physician has prescribed Zyvox (linezolid) for a patient with VRE. The concurrent use of which medication may result in serotonin syndrome?
A. Nexium (esomeprazole)
B. Zoloft (sertraline)
C. Lipitor (atorvastatin)
D. Zyrtec (cetirizine)

334. A new diabetic is learning to administer his insulin. He receives 10 units of NPH insulin and 12 units of regular insulin each morning. Which of the following statements reflects understanding of the nurse’s teaching?
A. “When drawing up my insulin, I should draw up the regular insulin first.”
B. “When drawing up my insulin, I should draw up the NPH insulin first.”
C. “It doesn’t matter which insulin I draw up first.”
D. “I cannot mix the two insulins, so I will need two injections.”

335. A client is scheduled to have a cardiac CTA with contrast. Before the procedure, the nurse should assess the patient for:
A. Allergies to shellfish or iodine allergies
B. The ability to lie prone for 30 minutes
C. A history of reaction to nitrates
D. The presence of body tattoos

336. Which medication does the nurse expect to be ordered for the postpartal patient with bleeding uncontrolled by Pitocin (oxytocin)?
A. Methergine (methylergonovine maleate)
B. Aquamephyton (phytonadione)
C. Amicar (aminocaproic acid)
D. Celestone (betamethasone)

337. The client with a recent liver transplant asks the nurse how long he will have to take an immunosuppressant. Which response is correct?
A. One year
B. Five years
C. 10 years
D. Life

338. A client admitted to the emergency room with multiple injuries develops Cullen’s sign. The nurse is aware that the client has sustained damage to the:
A. Frontal lobe
B. Lungs
C. Abdominal organs
D. Spinal cord

339. The physician prescribes regular insulin, five units subcutaneous. Regular insulin begins to exert an effect:
A. Within 5–10 minutes
B. Within 10–20 minutes
C. Within 30–60 minutes
D. Within 60–90 minutes

340. A 60-year-old diabetic is taking glyburide (Diabeta) 1.25mg daily to treat Type II diabetes mellitus. Which statement indicates the need for further teaching?
A. “I will keep candy with me just in case my blood sugar drops.”
B. “I need to stay out of the sun as much as possible.”
C. “I often skip dinner because I don’t feel hungry.”
D. “I always wear my medical identification.”

341. A 20-year-old female has a prescription for Sumycin (tetracycline). While teaching the client how to take her medicine, the nurse learns that the client is also taking an oral contraceptive. Which instruction should be included in the teaching plan?
A. Oral contraceptives will decrease the effectiveness of the tetracycline.
B. Anorexia often results from taking oral contraceptives with antibiotics.
C. Toxicity can result when taking these antibiotics and an oral contraceptive together.
D. Antibiotics can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.

342. A client is taking Deltasone(prednisone) each morning to treat his systemic lupus erythematosus. Which statement best explains the reason for taking the prednisone in the morning?
A. There is less chance of forgetting the medication if taken in the morning.
B. There will be less fluid retention if taken in the morning.
C. The medication is absorbed best with the breakfast meal.
D. Morning administration mimics the body’s natural secretion of corticosteroid.

343. A client is taking Rifadin(rifampin) 600mg PO daily for pulmonary tuberculosis. The nurse should tell the client to:
A. Take the medication with juice
B. Expect red discoloration of the urine
C. Take the medication before going to bed at night
D. Take the medication only if night sweats occur

344. The client is diagnosed with multiple myeloma. The doctor has ordered cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan). Which instruction should be given to the client?
A. “Walk about a mile a day to prevent calcium loss.”
B. “Increase the fiber in your diet.”
C. “Report nausea to the doctor immediately.”
D. “Drink at least eight large glasses of water a day.”

345. A client with ovarian cancer is receiving fluorouracil (Adrucil) IV. What should the nurse do if she notices crystals in the IV medication?
A. Discard the solution and order a new bag.
B. Warm the solution.
C. Continue the infusion and document the finding.
D. Discontinue the medication.

346. Before administering Theo-Dur (theophylline), the nurse should check the patient’s:
A. Urinary output
B. Blood pressure
C. Pulse
D. Temperature

347. Which information obtained from the mother of a child with cerebral palsy correlates to the diagnosis?
A. She was born at 40 weeks gestation.
B. She had meningitis when she was six months old.
C. She had physiologic jaundice after delivery.
D. She has frequent sore throats.

348. Which finding is expected in an 18-month-old with normal growth and development?
A. She dresses herself.
B. She pulls a toy behind her.
C. She can build a tower of eight blocks.
D. She can copy a horizontal or vertical line.

349. A five-year-old is admitted to the unit following a tonsillectomy. Which of the following would indicate a complication of the surgery?
A. Decreased appetite
B. A low-grade fever
C. Chest congestion
D. Constant swallowing

350. The child with seizure disorder is being treated with phenytoin (Dilantin). Which of the following statements by the patient’s mother indicates to the nurse that the patient is experiencing a side effect of Dilantin therapy?
A. “She is very irritable lately.”
B. “She sleeps quite a bit of the time.”
C. “Her gums look too big for her teeth.”
D. “She has gained about 10 pounds in the last six months.”

351. The physician has prescribed tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate) 10mg bid. The nurse should teach the client to refrain from eating foods containing tyramine because it may cause:
A. Hypertension
B. Hyperthermia
C. Hypotension
D. Urinary retention

352. The client is admitted to the emergency room with shortness of breath, anxiety, and tachycardia. His ECG reveals atrial fibrillation with a ventricular response rate of 130 beats per minute. The doctor orders quinidine sulfate. While he is receiving quinidine, the nurse should monitor his ECG for:
A. Peaked P wave
B. Elevated ST segment
C. Inverted T wave
D. Prolonged QT interval

353. Lidocaine is a medication frequently ordered for the client experiencing:
A. Atrial tachycardia
B. Ventricular tachycardia
C. Heart block
D. Ventricular bradycardia

354. The doctor orders 2% nitroglycerin ointment in a 1-inch dose every 12 hours. Proper application of nitroglycerin ointment includes:
A. Rotating application sites
B. Limiting applications to the chest
C. Rubbing it into the skin
D. Covering it with a gauze dressing

355. The physician prescribes captopril (Capoten) 25mg PO bid for the client with hypertension. Which of the following adverse reactions can occur with administration of Capoten?
A. Tinnitus
B. Persistent cough
C. Muscle weakness
D. Diarrhea

356. The client is admitted with a BP of 210/100. Her doctor orders furosemide (Lasix) 40mg IV stat. How should the nurse administer the prescribed furosemide to this client?
A. By giving it over 1–2 minutes
B. By hanging it IV piggyback
C. With normal saline only
D. With a filter

357. The client is receiving heparin for thrombophlebitis of the left lower extremity. Which of the following drugs reverses the effects of heparin?
A. Cyanocobalamine
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Streptokinase
D. Sodium warfarin

358. The nurse is making assignments for the day. Which client should be assigned to the pregnant nurse?
A. The client receiving linear accelerator radiation therapy for lung cancer
B. The client with a radium implant for cervical cancer
C. The client who has just been administered soluble brachytherapy for thyroid cancer
D. The client who returned from placement of iridium seeds for prostate cancer

359. The nurse is planning room assignments for the day. Which client should be assigned to a private room if only one is available?
A. The client with Cushing’s disease
B. The client with diabetes
C. The client with acromegaly
D. The client with myxedema

360. The charge nurse witnesses the nursing assistant hitting an elderly client in the long-term care facility. The nursing assistant can be charged with:
A. Negligence
B. Tort
C. Assault
D. Malpractice

361. Which assignment should not be delegated to the licensed practical nurse?
A. Inserting a Foley catheter
B. Discontinuing a nasogastric tube
C. Obtaining a sputum specimen
D. Starting a blood transfusion

362. The client returns to the unit from surgery with a blood pressure of 90/50, pulse 132, respirations 30. Which action by the nurse should receive priority?
A. Continue to monitor the vital signs
B. Contact the physician
C. Ask the client how he feels
D. Ask the LPN to continue the post-op care

363. The nurse is caring for a client with ß-thalassemia major. Which therapy is used to treat ß-thalassemia major?
A. IV fluids
B. Frequent blood transfusions
C. Oxygen therapy
D. Iron therapy

364. Which medication is often used to treat the client with N.gonorrhea?
A. Sitavig (acyclovir)
B. Vibramycin (doxycycline)
C. Retrovir (zidovudine)
D. Aldara (imiquimod)

365. Which of the following symptoms is associated with Chlamydia?
A. Frequent urination and vaginal discharge
B. Generalized rash
C. Lesions on the perineum
D. Enlarged lymph nodes and pelvic pain

366. The physician has ordered an alkaline ash diet for a patient with recurrent cysteine kidney stones. Which of the following should be included in the patient’s diet?
A. Cranberries
B. Grapes
C. Plums
D. Rhubarb

367. The nurse is aware that a common mode of transmission of clostridium difficile is:
A. Use of unsterile surgical equipment
B. Contamination of objects with sputum
C. Through urinary catheterization
D. Contamination of objects with stool

368. The nurse has just received the change of shift report. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client two hours post-lobectomy with 150mL of chest drainage
B. A client two days post-gastrectomy with scant drainage
C. A client with pneumonia with an oral temperature of 102ºF
D. A client with a fractured hip in Buck’s traction

369. The nurse is removing a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). The nurse should position the patient in which position?
A. Fowlers
B. Right side lying
C. Left side lying
D. Trendelenburg

370. The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client taking naltrexone (Revia). The nurse should instruct the client to avoid which over-the-counter medication:
A. Acetaminophen
B. Ibuprofen
C. Cold medicine
D. Antihistamines

371. A 70-year-old male who is recovering from a stroke exhibits signs of unilateral neglect. Which behavior is suggestive of unilateral neglect?
A. The client is observed shaving only one side of his face.
B. The client is unable to distinguish between two tactile stimuli presented simultaneously.
C. The client is unable to complete a range of vision without turning his head side to side.
D. The client is unable to carry out cognitive and motor activity at the same time.

372. An elderly client refuses to take her daily medication for hypertension. Which action should the nurse take at this time?
A. Administer the medication by injection
B. Obtain help administering the medication
C. Skip the dose of medication and attempt to give it later
D. Explore the reason for the client’s refusal to take the medication

373. A nurse indicates that she is licensed in her new state of residence even though reciprocity has not been granted. The nurse’s action can result in a charge of:
A. Fraud
B. Tort
C. Malpractice
D. Negligence

374. The nurse is assigning staff for the day. Which client should be assigned to the nursing assistant?
A. A five-month-old with bronchiolitis
B. A 10-year-old who is two-day post-appendectomy
C. A two-year-old with periorbital cellulitis
D. A one-year-old with a fractured tibia

375. During a change of shift, the oncoming nurse notes a discrepancy in the narcotic count. The nurse’s first action should be to:
A. Notify the hospital pharmacist
B. Notify the nursing supervisor
C. Notify the board of nursing
D. Notify the director of nursing

376. Due to a high census, it has been necessary for a number of clients to be transferred to other units within the hospital. Which client should be transferred to the postpartum unit?
A. A 66-year-old female with gastroenteritis
B. A 40-year-old female with a hysterectomy
C. A 27-year-old male with severe depression
D. A 28-year-old male with ulcerative colitis

377. A client with glomerulonephritis is placed on a low-sodium diet. Which of the following snacks is suitable for the client with sodium restriction?
A. Peanut butter cookies
B. Grilled cheese sandwich
C. Cottage cheese and fruit
D. Fresh peach

378. A home health nurse is making preparations for morning visits. Which one of the following clients should the nurse visit first?
A. A client with a stroke with tube feedings
B. A client with a history of congestive heart failure complaining of nighttime dyspnea
C. A client with a thoracotomy six months ago
D. A client with Parkinson’s disease

379. The nurse can help alleviate the discomfort the client is experiencing associated with xerostomia by:
A. Limiting fluid intake
B. Administering an analgesic
C. Splinting swollen joints
D. Providing sugarless hard candy

380. The nurse is making assignments for the day. The staff consists of an RN, an LPN, and a nursing assistant. Which client could the nursing assistant care for?
A. A client with Alzheimer’s disease
B. A client with pneumonia
C. A client with cirrhosis
D. A client with thrombophlebitis

381. The nurse is caring for a client with cerebral palsy. The nurse should provide frequent rest periods because:
A. Grimacing and writhing movements decrease with relaxation and rest.
B. Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes become more active with rest.
C. Stretch reflexes are increased with rest.
D. Fine motor movements are improved by rest.

382. The physician has ordered a culture for a male patient suspected of having N.gonorrhea. Which information should the nurse give the patient?
A. It will be necessary to obtain a sample of blood for an antibody screen.
B. We will need to obtain a swab of nasopharyngeal secretions.
C. A morning sample of urine will be needed.
D. Emptying the bladder one hour before the test may affect results.

383. Which of the following post-operative diets is appropriate for the client who has had a hemorrhoidectomy?
A. High fiber
B. Lactose free
C. Bland
D. Clear liquid

384. The client delivered a nine-pound infant two days ago. An effective means of managing discomfort from an episiotomy is:
A. Medicated suppository
B. Taking a warm shower
C. Sitz baths
D. Ice packs

385. The nurse is assessing a client recently returned from surgery. The best way to determine the client’s need for pain medication is to:
A. Watch for changes in the client’s vital signs
B. Ask the client to rate his pain on a scale of 0–10
C. Observe the client’s facial expression during dressing changes
D. Wait for the client to request medication for pain relief

386. The client is admitted with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Blood gases reveal pH 7.36, CO 2 45, O 2 84, bicarb 28. The nurse would assess the client to be in:
A. Uncompensated acidosis
B. Compensated alkalosis
C. Compensated respiratory acidosis
D. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis

387. A client with schizophrenia has become disruptive and requires seclusion to help him regain control of his behavior. Which staff member can institute seclusion?
A. The security guard
B. The registered nurse
C. The licensed practical nurse
D. The nursing assistant

388. The physician has ordered Coumadin (sodium warfarin) for a client with thrombophlebitis. The order should be entered to administer the medication at:
A. 0900
B. 1200
C. 1700
D. 2100

389. A 25-year-old male is brought to the emergency room with a metal fragment in his eye. The first action the nurse should take is:
A. Use a magnet to remove the metal fragment.
B. Rinse the eye thoroughly with sterile saline.
C. Cover both eyes with a cupped object.
D. Place a patch over the affected eye.

390. To ensure safety while administering a nitroglycerine patch, the nurse should:
A. Wear gloves while applying the patch.
B. Shave the area where the patch will be applied.
C. Wash the area thoroughly with soap and rinse with hot water.
D. Apply the patch to the buttocks.

391. A client with ascites is scheduled for a paracentesis. Which instruction should be given to the client before the procedure?
A. You will need to lay flat during the procedure.
B. You need to empty your bladder before the procedure.
C. You will be asleep during the procedure.
D. The doctor will inject a medication during the procedure.

392. A client with symptoms of myasthenia gravis is scheduled for a Tensilon (edrophoniun) test. Which medication should be kept available during the test?
A. Atropine sulfate
B. Lasix (furosemide)
C. Prostigmine (neostigmine)
D. Phenergan (promethazine)

393. The first exercise that should be performed by the client who had a mastectomy one day earlier is:
A. Walking the hand up the wall
B. Sweeping the floor
C. Combing her hair
D. Squeezing a ball

394. Which woman is not a candidate for RhoGAM?
A. A gravida 4 para 3 that is Rh negative with an Rh-positive baby
B. A gravida 1 para 1 that is Rh negative with an Rh-positive baby
C. A gravida 2 para 0 that is Rh negative admitted after a stillbirth delivery
D. A gravida 4 para 2 that is Rh negative with an Rh-negative baby

395. Which laboratory test is not included in making the diagnosis of myocardial infarction?
A. AST
B. Troponin
C. CK-MB
D. Myoglobin

396. The client with a myocardial infarction comes to the nurse’s station stating that he is ready to go home because there is nothing wrong with him. Which defense mechanism is the client using?
A. Rationalization
B. Denial
C. Projection
D. Conversion reaction

397. The client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which lab test should be evaluated while the client is receiving TPN?
A. Hemoglobin
B. Creatinine
C. Blood glucose
D. White cell count

398. The client with diabetes is preparing for discharge. During discharge teaching, the nurse assesses the client’s ability to care for himself. Which statement made by the client would indicate a need for follow-up after discharge?
A. I live by myself.
B. I have trouble seeing.
C. I have a cat in the house with me.
D. I usually drive myself to the doctor.

399. A client with cirrhosis is receiving Cephulac (lactulose). The nurse is aware that Cephulac is given to lower:
A. Blood glucose
B. Uric acid
C. Ammonia
D. Creatinine

400. A client is receiving peritoneal dialysis. If the dialysate returns are cloudy, the nurse should:
A. Tell the client that this is a normal occurrence
B. Ask the client about fever or abdominal pain
C. Tell the client that the dialysate should be shaken before use
D. Ask the client how she has been warming the dialysate