301 - 400 Solved CBT Styled Practical MCQ Test Questions Bank

301. A client is ambulating with a walker. The nurse corrects the walking pattern of the patient if he does which of the following?
A. The patient walks first & then lifts the walker
B. The walker is held on the hand grips for stability
C. The patient’s body weight is supported by the hands when advancing his weaker leg.
D. All of the Above

302. The nurse should adjust the walker at which level to promote safety & stability?
A. Knee
B. Hip
C. Chest
D. Armpit

303. The nurse is caring for an immobile client. The nurse is promoting interventions to prevent foot drop from occurring. Which of the following is least likely a cause of foot drop?
A. Bed rest
B. Lack of exercise
C. Incorrect bed positioning
D. Bedding weight that forces the toes into plantar flexion

304. The nurse should consider performing preparatory exercises on which muscle to prevent flexion or buckling during crutch walking?
A. Shoulder depressor muscles
B. Forearm extensor muscles
C. Wrist extensor muscles
D. Finger & thumb flexor muscles

305. The nurse is measuring the crutch using the patient’s height. How many inches should the nurse subtract from the patient’s height to obtain the approximate measurement?
A. 10 inches
B. 16 inches
C. 9 inches
D. 5 inches

306. The most advanced gait used in crutch walking is:
A. Four point gait
B. Three point gait
C. Swing to gait
D. Swing through gait

307. In going up the stairs with crutches, the nurse should instruct the patient to:
A. Advance the stronger leg first up to the step then advance the crutches & the weaker extremity.
B. Advance the crutches to the step then the weaker leg is advanced after. The stronger leg then follows.
C. Advance both crutches & lift both feet & swing forward landing next to crutches.
D. Place both crutches in the hand on the side of the affected extremity

308. The patient can be selected with a crutch gait depending on the following apart from:
A. Patient’s physical condition
B. Arm & truck strength
C. Body balance
D. Coping mechanism

309. Proper technique to use walker
A. move 10 feet, take small steps
B. move 10feet,take large wide steps
C. move 12feet
D. transform weight to walker and walk

310. When using crutches, what part of the body should absorb the patient’s weight?
A. Armpits
B. Hands
C. Back
D. Shoulders

311. What a patient should not do when using Zimmer frame
A. it can be used outside
B. don’t carry any other thing with walker
C. push walker forward when using
D. slide walker forward

312. What should be taught to a client about use of Zimmer frame
A. move affected leg first
B. move unaffected leg
C. move both legs together
D. None of the above

313. The nurse is giving the client with a left cast crutch walking instruction using the three point gait. The client is allowed touchdown of the affected leg. The nurse tells the client to advance the:
A. Left leg and right crutch then right leg and left crutch
B. Crutches and then both legs simultaneously
C. Crutches and the right leg then advance the left leg
D. Crutches and the left leg then advance the right leg

314. Which layer of the skin contains blood and lymph vessels. Sweat and sebaceous glands?
A. Epidermis
B. Dermis
C. Subcutaneous layer
D. All of the Above

315. What is abduction?
A. Division of the body into front and back
B. Movement of a body parts towards the body’s midline
C. Division of the body into left and right
D. Movement of body part away from the body’s midline

316. What is the clinical benefit of active ankle movements?
A. To assist with circulation
B. To lower the risk of a DVT
C. To maintain joint range
D. All of the Above

317. In the context of assessing risks prior to moving and handling, what does T-I-L-E stand for?
A. Task – individual – lift – environment
B. Task – intervene – load – environment
C. Task – intervene – load – equipment
D. Task – individual – load – environment

318. In Spinal cord injury patients, what is the most common cause of autonomic dysreflexia ( a sudden rise in blood pressure)?
A. Bowel obstruction
B. Fracture below the level of the spinal lesion
C. Pressure sore
D. Urinary obstruction

319. A client with a right arm cast for fractured humerus states, “I haven’t been able to straighten the fingers on the right hand since this morning.” What action should the nurse take?
A. Assess neurovascular status to the hand
B. Ask the client to massage the fingers
C. Encourage the client to take the prescribed analgesic
D. Elevate the arm on a pillow to reduce oedema

320. How do the structures of the human body work together to provide support and assist in movement?
A. The skeleton provides a structural framework. This is moved by the muscles that contract or extend and in order to function, cross at least one joint and are attached to the articulating bones.
B. The muscles provide a structural framework and are moved by bones to which they are attached by ligaments.
C. The skeleton provides a structural framework; this is moved by ligaments that stretch and contract.
D. The muscles provide a structural framework, moving by contracting or extending, crossing at least one joint and attached to the articulating bones.

321. What does ‘muscle atrophy’ mean?
A. Loss of muscle mass
B. A change in the shape of muscles
C. Disease of the muscle
D. None of the above

322. Approximately how long is the spinal cord in an adult?
A. 30 cm
B. 45 cm
C. 60 cm
D. 120 cm

323. Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by compression of which nerve:
A. Median nerve
B. Axillary nerve
C. Ulnar nerve
D. Radial nerve

324. The most commonly injured carpal bone is:
A. the scaphoid bone
B. the triquetral bone
C. the pisiform bone
D. the hamate bone

325. Client had fractured hand and being cared at home requiring analgesia. The medication was prescribed under PGD. Which of the following statements are correct relating to this?
A. A PGD can be delegated to student nurse who can administer medication with supervision
B. PGD’s cannot be delegated to anyone
C. This type of prescription is not made under PGD
D. This can be delegated to another RN who can administer in view of a competent person

326. Patient is post of repair of tibia and fibula possible signs of compartment syndrome include
A. Numbness and tingling
B. Cool dusky toes
C. Toes swelling
D. All of the Above

327. Patient has tibia fibula fracture. Which one of the following is not a symptom of compartment syndrome
A. Pain not subsiding even after giving epidural analgesia
B. Nausea and vomiting
C. Tingling and numbness of the lower limb
D. Cold extremities

328. A Chinese woman has been admitted with fracture of wrist. When you are helping her undress, you notice some bruises on her back and abdomen of different ages. You want to talk to her and what is your action
A. Ask her husband about the bruises
B. Ask her son/ daughter to translate
C. Arrange for interpreter to ask questions in private
D. Do not carry any assessment and document this is not possible as the client cannot speak English

329. What is the clinical benefit of active ankle movements?
A. To assist with circulation
B. To lower the risk of a DVT
C. To maintain joint range
D. All of the Above

330. How do you test the placement of an enteral tube?
A. Monitoring bubbling at the end of the tube
B. Testing the acidity/alkalinity of aspirate using blue litmus paper
C. Interpreting absence of respiratory distress as an indicator of correct positioning
D. Have an abdominal x-ray

331. During enteral feeding in adults, at what degree angle should the patient be nursed at to reduce the risk of reflux and aspiration?
A. 25
B. 35
C. 45
D. 55

332. What is the use of protected mealtime?
A. Patient get protection from visitors
B. Staff get enough time to have their bank
C. To give personal hygiene to patients who are confused
D. Patients get enough time to eat food without distractions while staff focus on people who needs help with eating

333. What is the best way to prevent who is receiving an enteral feed from aspirating?
A. Lie them flat
B. Sit them at least 45-degree angle
C. Tell them to lie in their side
D. Check their oxygen saturations

334. Approximately how many people in the UK are malnourished?
A. 1 million
B. 3 million
C. 5 million
D. 7 million

335. How can patients who need assistance at meal times be identified?
A. A red sticker
B. A colour serviette
C. A red tray
D. Any of the above

336. Which of the following is no longer a recommended method of mouth care?
A. Chlorhexidine solution and foam sticks
B. Sodium bicarbonate
C. Normal saline mouth wash
D. Glycerine and lemon swabs

337. Which of the following Is not a cause of gingival bleeding?
A. Lifestyle
B. Vitamin deficiency (Vitamin C and K)
C. Vigorous brushing of teeth
D. Intake of blood thinning medication (warfarin, asprin, and heparin)

338. What specifically do you need to monitor to avoid complications & ensure optimal nutritional status in patients being enterally fed?
A. Daily urinalysis, ECG, Protein levels and arterial pressure
B. Assess swallowing, patient choice, fluid balance, capillary refill time
C. Eyesight, hearing, full blood count, lung function and stoma site
D. Blood glucose levels, full blood count, stoma site and body weight

339. A patient is recovering from surgery has been advanced from a clear diet to a full liquid diet. The patient is looking forward to the diet change because he has been 'bored' with the clear liquid diet. The nurse should offer which full liquid item to the patient
A. Custard
B. Black Tea
C. Gelatin
D. Ice pop

340. According to recent UK research, what is the recommended amount of vegetables and fruits to be consumed per day?
A. 3 portions per serving
B. 5 portions per serving
C. 7 portions per serving
D. 4 portions per serving

341. The nurse is preparing to change the parenteral nutrition (PN) solution bag & tubing. The patient's central venous line is located in the right subclavian vein. The nurse ask the client to take which essential action during the tubing change?
A. Take a deep breath, hold it, & bear down
B. Breathe normally
C. Exhale slowly & evenly
D. Turn the head to the right

342. If the prescribed volume is taken, which of the following type of feed will provide all protein, vitamins, minerals and trace elements to meet patient's nutritional requirements?
A. Protein shakes/supplements
B. Energy drink
C. Mixed fat and glucose polymer solutions/powder
D. Sip feed

343. A patient has been admitted for nutritional support and started receiving a hyperosmolar feed yesterday. He presents with diarrhea but no pyrexia. What is likely to be cause?
A. An infection
B. Food poisoning
C. Being in hospital
D. The feed

344. Your patient has a bulky oesophageal tumor and is waiting for surgery. When he tries to eat, food gets stuck and gives him heart burn. What is the most likely route that will be chosen to provide him with the nutritional support he needs?
A. Feeding via Radiologically inserted Gastostomy (RIG)
B. Nasogastric tube feeding
C. Feeding via a Percutaneous Endoscopic Gastrostonomy (PEG)
D. Continue oral

345. Which of the following medications are safe to be administered via a naso-gastric tube?
A. Drugs that can be absorbed via this route, can be crushed and given diluted or dissolved in 10-15 ml of water
B. Enteric-coated drugs to minimize the impact of gastric irritation
C. A cocktail of all medications mixed together, to save time and prevent fluid over loading the patient
D. Any drugs that can be crushed

346. An overall risk of malnutrition of 2 or higher signifies:
A. Low risk of malnutrition
B. Medium risk of malnutrition
C. High risk of malnutrition
D. None of the above

347. One of the government initiative in promoting good healthy living is eating the right and balanced food. Which of the following can achieve this?
A. 24/7 exercise programme
B. 5-a-day fruits and vegetable portions
C. low calorie diet
D. high protein diet

348. Mr Bond’s daughter rang and wanted to visit him. She told you of her diarrhoea and vomiting in the last 24 hours. How will you best respond to her about visiting Mr Bond?
A. allow her to visit and use alcohol gel before contact with him
B. visit him when she feels better
C. visit him when she is symptom free after 48 hours
D. allow her to visit only during visiting times only

349. An overall risk of malnutrition of 2 or higher signifies:
A. Low risk of malnutrition
B. Medium risk of malnutrition
C. High risk of malnutrition
D. None of the above

350. Enteral feeding patient checks patency of tube placement by:
A. X-ray
B. Aspirating gastric juice and then checking for ph<4 br="">C. Infusing water or air and listening for gurgles
D. A and B

351. The client reports nausea and constipation. Which of the following would be the priority nursing action?
A. Complete an abdominal assessment
B. Administer an anti-nausea a medication
C. Notify the physician
D. Collect a stool sample

352. What specifically do you need to monitor to avoid complications and ensure optimal nutritional status in patients being enterally fed?
A. Blood glucose levels, full blood count, stoma site and bodyweight.
B. Eye sight, hearing, full blood count, lung function and stoma site.
C. Assess swallowing, patient choice, fluid balance, capillary refill time.
D. Daily urinalysis, ECG, protein levels and arterial pressure.

353. What is the best way to prevent a patient who is receiving an enteral feed from aspirating?
A. Lie them flat.
B. Sit them at least at a 45° angle.
C. Tell them to lie on their side.
D. Check their oxygen saturations.

354. Which check do you need to carry out before setting up an enteral feed via a nasogastric tube?
A. That when flushed with red juice, the red juice can be seen when the tube is aspirated.
B. That air cannot be heard rushing into the lungs by doing the whoosh test
C. That the pH of gastric aspirate is <5 .5="" and="" as="" insertion.="" is="" length="" mark="" measurement="" ng="" on="" same="" the="" time="" tube="">
D. That pH of gastric aspirate is >6.0, and the measurement on the NG tube is the same length as the time insertion

355. Which check do you need to carry out every time before setting up a routine enteral feed via a nasogastric tube?
A. That when flushed with red juice, the red juice can be seen when the tube is aspirated
B. That air cannot be heard rushing into the lungs by doing the ‘whoosh test’.
C. That the pH of gastric aspirate is <4 and="" as="" insertion="" is="" length="" mark="" measurement="" ng="" on="" same="" the="" time="" tube="">
D. abdominal x-ray

356. What specifically do you need to monitor to avoid complications and ensure optimal nutritional status in patients being enterally fed?
A. Blood glucose levels, full blood count, stoma site and bodyweight
B. Eye sight, hearing, full blood count, lung function and stoma site
C. Assess swallowing, patient choice, fluid balance, capillary refill time
D. Daily urinalysis, ECG, protein levels and arterial pressure

357. If a patient requires protective isolation, which of the following should you advise them to drink?
A. Filtered water only
B. Fresh fruit juice and filtered water
C. Bottled water and tap water
D. Long-life fruit juice and filtered water

358. A patient has been admitted for nutritional support and started receiving a hyperosmolar feed yesterday. He presents with diarrhoea but has no pyrexia. What is likely to be the cause?
A. The feed
B. An infection
C. Food poisoning
D. Being in hospital

359. Adam, 46 years old is of Jewish descent. As his nurse, how will you plan his dietary needs?
A. Assume he strictly needs Jewish food
B. Ask relatives to bring food from kosher market
C. Ask a rabbi to help you plan
D. Ask the patient about his diet preferences

360. An adult woman asks for the best contraception in view of her holiday travel to a diarrhoea prone areas. She is currently taking oral contraceptives. What advice will you give her?
A. Tell her to abstain from having sex because of HIV
B. Tell her to bring lots of contraceptives because it will be expensive
C. Tell her to use other methods like condom because diarrhoea lessens the effects of OCP
D. Tell her to continue taking her usual contraceptives

361. Dehydration is of particular concern in ill health. If a patient is receiving IV fluid replacement and is having their fluid balance recorded, which of the following statements is true of someone said to be in “positive fluid balance”
A. The fluid output has exceeded the input
B. The doctor may consider increasing the IV drip rate
C. The fluid balance chart can be stopped as “positive” means “good”
D. The fluid input has exceeded the output

362. Obesity is one of the main problems. what might cause this?
A. supermarket
B. unequality
C. low economic class
D. None of the above

363. Constipation needs to be sort out during:
A. planning
B. assessment
C. implementation
D. evaluation

364. What may not be cause of diarrhoea?
A. colitis
B. intestinal obstruction
C. food allergy
D. food poisoning

365. Perdue (2005) categorizes constipation as primary, secondary or iatrogenic. What could be some of the causes of iatrogenic constipation?
A. Inadequate diet and poor fluid intake.
B. Anal fissures, colonic tumours or hypercalcaemia.
C. Lifestyle changes and ignoring the urge to defaecate.
D. Antiemetic or opioid medication

366. A patient is to be subjected for surgery but the patient’s BMI is low. Where will you refer the patient?
A. Speech and Language Therapist
B. Dietitian
C. Chef
D. Family member

367. How can patients who need assistance at meal times be identified?
A. A red sticker
B. A colour serviette
C. A red tray
D. Any of the above

368. Signs of denture related stomatitis
A. whiteness on the tongue
B. patches of shiny redness on the cheek and tongue
C. patches of shiny redness on the palette and gums
D. patches of shiny redness on the tongue

369. Before a gastric surgery, a nurse identifies that the patients BMI is too low. Who she should contact to improve the patients’ health before surgery
A. Gastro enterologist
B. Dietitian
C. Family Doc of patient
D. Physio

370. Which of the following is not a cause of gingival bleeding?
A. Vigorous brushing of teeth
B. Intake of blood thinning medications (warfarin, aspirin, and heparin)
C. Vitamin deficiency (Vitamins C and K)
D. Lifestyle

371. A patient develops gingivitis after using an artificial denture. It is characterized by
A. White patches on tongue
B. Red shiny patches on tongue
C. Red shiny patches around the palate of tooth
D. None of the above

372. Signs of denture-related stomatitis include all except:
A. Redness underneath the area where the dentures are placed
B. Red sores at the corners of lips or on the roof of the mouth
C. Presence of white patches inside the mouth
D. Gingivitis

373. If a patient is experiencing dysphagia, which of the following investigations are they likely to have?
A. Colonoscopy
B. Gastroscopy
C. Cystoscopy
D. Arthroscopy

374. Signs and symptoms of early fluid volume deficit, except.
A. Decreased urine output
B. Decreased pulse rate
C. Concentrated urine
D. Decreased skin turgor

375. A patient is to be subjected for surgery but the patient’s BMI is low. Where will you refer the patient?
A. Speech and Language Therapist
B. Dietician
C. Chef
D. Family member

376. A patient had been suffering from severe diarrhoea and is now showing signs of dehydration. Which of the following is not a classic symptom?
A. passing small amounts of urine frequently
B. dizziness or light-headedness
C. dark-coloured urine
D. thirst

377. A relative of the patient was experiencing vomiting and diarrhoea and wished to visit her mother who was admitted. As a nurse, what will you advise to the patient's relative?
A. There should be 48 hours after active symptoms should disappear prior to visiting patient
B. Inform relative it is fine to visit mother as long as she uses alcohol before entering ward premises
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

378. Nurse caring a confused client not taking fluids, staff on previous shift tried to make him drink but were unsuccessful. Now it is the visitors time, wife is waiting outside What to do?
A. Ask the wife to give him fluid, and enquire about his fluid preferences and usual drinking time
B. Tell her to wait and you need some time to make him drink
C. Inform doctor to start iv fluids to prevent dehydration
D. None of the above

379. Causes of gingival bleeding
A. poor removal plaque
B. poor flossing
C. poor nutrition
D. poor taking of drugs

380. As a nurse you are responsible for looking after patient’s nutritional needs and to maintain good weight during hospitalization. How would you achieve this?
A. Providing all clients with liquid nutritional supplement
B. Assessing all patients using MUST screening tool and by taking patients preferences into consideration
C. Checking daily weigh and documenting
D. Assessing nutritional status, client preferences and needs, making individual food choices available, checking daily weight and documentation

381. The client reports nausea and constipation. Which of the following would be the priority nursing action?
A. Collect a stool sample
B. Complete an abdominal assessment
C. Administer an anti-nausea medication
D. Notify the physician

382. A nurse is not allowing the client to go to bed without finishing her meal. What is your action as a RN?
A. Do nothing as client has to finish her meal which is important for her health
B. Challenge the situation immediately as this is related to dignity of the patient and raise your concern
C. Do nothing as patient is not under your care
D. Wait until the situation is over and speak to the client on what she wants to do

383. A nurse is preparing to deliver a food tray to a client whose religion is Jewish. The nurse checks the food on the tray and notes that the client has received a roast beef dinner with whole milk as a beverage. Which action will the nurse take?
A. Deliver the food tray to the client
B. Call the dietary department and ask for a new meal tray
C. Replace the whole milk with fat free milk
D. Ask the dietary department to replace the roast beef with pork

384. What is the use of protected meal time?
A. Patient get protection from visitors
B. Staff get enough time to have their bank
C. To give personal hygiene to patients who are confused
D. Patients get enough time to eat food without distractions while staff focus on people who needs help with eating

385. How many cups of fluid do we need every day to keep us well hydrated?
A. 1 to 2
B. 2 to 4
C. 4 to 6
D. 6 to 8

386. The human body is made up of approximately what proportion of water?
A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 70%
D. 80%

387. Concentration of electrolytes within the body vary depending on the compartment within which they are contained. Extracellular fluid has a high concentration of which of the following?
A. Potassium
B. Chloride
C. Sodium
D. Magnesium

388. Dehydration is of particular concern in ill health. If a patient is receiving IV fluid replacement and is having their fluid balance recorded, which of the following statements is true of someone said to be in 'positive fluid balance'
A. The fluid input has exceeded the output
B. The fluid balance chart can be stopped as 'positive' means 'good'
C. The doctor may consider increasing the IV drip rate
D. The fluid output has exceeded the input

389. Mr. James, 72 years old, is a registered blind admitted on your ward due to dehydration. He is encouraged to drink and eat to recover. How will you best manage this plan of care?
A. Ask the patient the assistance he needs
B. delegate someone to feed him
C. ask the relatives to assist in feeding him
D. look for volunteer to assist with his needs

390. What do you expect to manifest with fluid volume deficit?
A. Low pulse, Low Bp
B. High pulse, High BP
C. High Pulse, low BP
D. Low Pulse, high BP

391. If your patient is having positive balance. How will you find out dehydration is balanced?
A. Input exceeds output
B. Output exceeds input
C. Optimally hydrated
D. Optimally dehydrated

392. A patient underwent an abdominal surgery and will be unable to meet nutritional needs through oral intake. A patient was placed on enteral feeding. How would you position the patient when feeding is being administered?
A. Sitting upright at 30 to 45°
B. Sitting upright at 60 to 75°
C. Sitting upright at 45 to 60
D. Sitting upright at 75 to 90°

393. What is positive fluid balance?
A. A deficit in fluid volume.
B. A state when fluid intake is greater than output.
C. Retention of both electrolytes and water in proportion to the levels in the extracellular fluid.
D. A state where the body has less water than it needs to function properly.

394. Which of the following is not normally considered to be a high risk fluid?
A. Cerebrospinal fluid
B. Urine
C. Peritoneal fluid
D. Semen

395. A patient is admitted to the ward with symptoms of acute diarrhoea. What should your initial management be?
A. Assessment, protective isolation, universal precautions.
B. Assessment, source isolation, antibiotic therapy.
C. Assessment, protective isolation, antimotility medication.
D. Assessment, source isolation, universal precautions

396. Sign of dehydration
A. Bounding pulse
B. Hypertension
C. Jugular distension
D. Hypotension

397. What is respiration?
A. the movement of air into and out of the lungs to continually refresh the gases there, commonly called ‘breathing’
B. movement of oxygen from the lungs into the blood, and carbon dioxide from the lungs into the blood, commonly called ‘gaseous exchange’
C. movement of oxygen from blood to the cells, and of carbon dioxide from the cells to the blood
D. the transport of oxygen from the outside air to the cells within tissues, and the transport of carbon dioxide in the opposite direction.

398. In normal breathing, what is the main muscle(s) involved in inspiration?
A. The diaphragm
B. The lungs
C. the intercostal
D. All of the Above

399. What percentage of the air we breath is made up of oxygen?
A. 16%
B. 21%
C. 26%
D. 31

400. What is the most accurate method of calculating a respiratory rate?
A. Counting the number of respiratory cycles in 15 seconds and multiplying by 4.
B. Counting the number of respiratory cycles in 1 minute. One cycle is equal to the complete rise and fall of the patient's chest.
C. Not telling the patient as this may make them conscious of their breathing pattern and influence the accuracy of the rate.
D. Placing your hand on the patient's chest and counting the number of respiratory cycles in 30 seconds and multiplying by 2