101 - 200 Solved NCLEX Styled Practical MCQ Test Questions Bank

101. Which observation would the nurse expect to make after an amniotomy?
A. Dark yellow amniotic fluid
B. Clear amniotic fluid
C. Greenish amniotic fluid
D. Red amniotic fluid

102. The client taking glyburide (Diabeta) should be cautioned to:
A. Avoid eating sweets
B. Report changes in urinary pattern
C. Allow three hours for onset
D. Check the glucose daily

103. The obstetric client’s fetal heart rate is 80–90 during the contractions. The first action the nurse should take is:
A. Reposition the monitor
B. Turn the client to her left side
C. Ask the client to ambulate
D. Prepare the client for delivery

104. Arterial ulcers are best described as ulcers that:
A. Are smooth in texture
B. Have irregular borders
C. Are cool to touch
D. Are painful to touch

105. A vaginal exam reveals a footling breech presentation. The nurse should take which of the following actions at this time?
A. Anticipate the need for a Caesarean section
B. Apply an internal fetal monitor
C. Place the client in genupectoral position
D. Perform an ultrasound

106. A vaginal exam reveals that the cervix is 4 cm dilated, with intact membranes and a fetal heart tone rate of 160–170bpm. The nurse decides to apply an external fetal monitor. The rationale for this implementation is:
A. The cervix is closed.
B. The membranes are still intact.
C. The fetal heart tones are within normal limits.
D. The contractions are intense enough for insertion of an internal monitor.

107. The following are all nursing diagnoses appropriate for a gravida 1 para 0 in labor. Which one would be most appropriate for the primigravida as she completes the early phase of labor?
A. Impaired gas exchange related to hyperventilation
B. Alteration in placental perfusion related to maternal position
C. Impaired physical mobility related to fetal-monitoring equipment
D. Potential fluid volume deficit related to decreased fluid intake

108. As the client reaches 6cm dilation, the nurse notes late decelerations on the fetal monitor. What is the most likely explanation of this pattern?
A. The baby is sleeping.
B. The umbilical cord is compressed.
C. There is head compression.
D. There is uteroplacental insufficiency.

109. The nurse notes variable decelerations on the fetal monitor strip. The most appropriate initial action would be to:
A. Notify her doctor
B. Start an IV
C. Reposition the client
D. Readjust the monitor

110. Which of the following is a characteristic of an ominous periodic change in the fetal heart rate?
A. A fetal heart rate of 120–130bpm
B. A baseline variability of 6–10bpm
C. Accelerations in FHR with fetal movement
D. A recurrent rate of 90–100bpm at the end of the contractions

111. The rationale for inserting a French catheter every hour for the client with epidural anesthesia is:
A. The bladder fills more rapidly because of the medication used for the epidural.
B. Her level of consciousness is such that she is in a trancelike state.
C. The sensation of the bladder filling is diminished or lost.
D. She is embarrassed to ask for the bedpan that frequently.

112. A client in the family planning clinic asks the nurse about the most likely time for her to conceive. The nurse explains that conception is most likely to occur when:
A. Estrogen levels are low.
B. Luteinizing hormone is high.
C. The endometrial lining is thin.
D. The progesterone level is low.

113. A client tells the nurse that she plans to use the rhythm method of birth control. The nurse is aware that the success of the rhythm method depends on the:
A. Age of the client
B. Frequency of intercourse
C. Regularity of the menses
D. Range of the client’s temperature

114. A client with diabetes asks the nurse for advice regarding methods of birth control. Which method of birth control is most suitable for the client with diabetes?
A. Intrauterine device
B. Oral contraceptives
C. Diaphragm
D. Contraceptive sponge

115. The doctor suspects that the client has an ectopic pregnancy. Which symptom is consistent with a diagnosis of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy?
A. Painless vaginal bleeding
B. Abdominal cramping
C. Throbbing pain in the upper quadrant
D. Sudden, stabbing pain in the lower quadrant

116. The nurse is teaching a pregnant client about nutritional needs during pregnancy. Which menu selection will best meet the nutritional needs of the pregnant client?
A. Hamburger patty, green beans, French fries, and iced tea
B. Roast beef sandwich, potato chips, baked beans, and cola
C. Baked chicken, fruit cup, potato salad, coleslaw, yogurt, and iced tea
D. Fish sandwich, gelatin with fruit, and coffee

117. The client with hyperemesis gravidarum is at risk for developing:
A. Respiratory alkalosis without dehydration
B. Metabolic acidosis with dehydration
C. Respiratory acidosis without dehydration
D. Metabolic alkalosis with dehydration

118. A client tells the doctor that she is about 20 weeks pregnant. The most definitive sign of pregnancy is:
A. Elevated human chorionic gonadatropin
B. The presence of fetal heart tones
C. Uterine enlargement
D. Breast enlargement and tenderness

119. The nurse is caring for a neonate whose mother is diabetic. The nurse will expect the neonate to be:
A. Hypoglycemic, small for gestational age
B. Hyperglycemic, large for gestational age
C. Hypoglycemic, large for gestational age
D. Hyperglycemic, small for gestational age

120. Which of the following instructions should be included in the nurse’s teaching regarding oral contraceptives?
A. Weight gain should be reported to the physician.
B. An alternate method of birth control is needed when taking antibiotics.
C. If the client misses one or more pills, two pills should be taken per day for one week.
D. Changes in the menstrual flow should be reported to the physician.

121. The nurse is discussing breastfeeding with a postpartum client. Breastfeeding is contraindicated in the postpartum client with:
A. Diabetes
B. HIV
C. Hypertension
D. Thyroid disease

122. A client is admitted to the labor and delivery unit complaining of vaginal bleeding with very little discomfort. The nurse’s first action should be to:
A. Assess the fetal heart tones
B. Check for cervical dilation
C. Check for firmness of the uterus
D. Obtain a detailed history

123. A client telephones the emergency room stating that she thinks that she is in labor. The nurse should tell the client that labor has probably begun when:
A. Her contractions are two minutes apart.
B. She has back pain and a bloody discharge.
C. She experiences abdominal pain and frequent urination.
D. Her contractions are five minutes apart.

124. The nurse is teaching a group of prenatal clients about the effects of cigarette smoke on fetal development. Which characteristic is associated with babies born to mothers who smoked during pregnancy?
A. Low birth weight
B. Large for gestational age
C. Preterm birth, but appropriate size for gestation
D. Growth retardation in weight and length

125. The physician has ordered an injection of RhoGAM (Rho[D]immune globulin) for the postpartum client whose blood type is A negative and whose baby is O positive. To provide postpartum prophylaxis, RhoGAM should be administered:
A. Within 72 hours of delivery
B. Within one week of delivery
C. Within two weeks of delivery
D. Within one month of delivery

126. After the physician performs an amniotomy, the nurse’s first action should be to assess the:
A. Degree of cervical dilation
B. Fetal heart tones
C. Client’s vital signs
D. Client’s level of discomfort

127. A client is admitted to the labor and delivery unit. The nurse performs a vaginal exam and determines that the client’s cervix is 5cm dilated with 75% effacement. Based on the nurse’s assessment, the client is in which phase of labor?
A. Active
B. Latent
C. Transition
D. Early

128. A newborn with narcotic abstinence syndrome is admitted to the nursery. Nursing care of the newborn should include:
A. Teaching the mother to provide tactile stimulation
B. Wrapping the newborn snugly in a blanket
C. Placing the newborn in the infant seat
D. Initiating an early infant-stimulation program

129. A client elects to have epidural anesthesia to relieve the discomfort of labor. Following the initiation of epidural anesthesia, the nurse should give priority to:
A. Checking for cervical dilation
B. Placing the client in a supine position
C. Checking the client’s blood pressure
D. Obtaining a fetal heart rate

130. The nurse is aware that the best way to prevent post-operative wound infection in the surgical client is to:
A. Administer a prescribed antibiotic
B. Wash her hands for two minutes before care
C. Wear a mask when providing care
D. Ask the client to cover her mouth when she coughs

131. The elderly client is admitted to the emergency room. Which symptom is the client with a fractured hip most likely to exhibit?
A. Pain
B. Disalignment
C. Cool extremity
D. Absence of pedal pulses

132. The nurse knows that a 60-year-old female client’s susceptibility to osteoporosis is most likely related to:
A. Lack of exercise
B. Hormonal changes
C. Lack of calcium
D. Genetic predisposition

133. A two-year-old is admitted for repair of a fractured femur and is placed in Bryant’s traction. Which finding by the nurse indicates that the traction is working properly?
A. The infant no longer complains of pain.
B. The buttocks are 15º off the bed.
C. The legs are suspended in the traction.
D. The pins are secured within the pulley.

134. Which statement is true regarding balanced skeletal traction?
A. Uses a Steinman pin
B. Requires that both legs be secured
C. Utilizes Kirschner wires
D. Is used primarily to heal the fractured hips

135. The client is admitted for an open reduction internal fixation of a fractured hip. Immediately following surgery, the nurse should give priority to assessing the:
A. Serum collection (Davol) drain
B. Client’s pain
C. Nutritional status
D. Immobilizer

136. Which statement made by the family member caring for the client with a percutaneous gastrostomy tube indicates understanding of the nurse’s teaching?
A. I must flush the tube with water after feedings and clamp the tube.
B. I must check placement four times per day.
C. I will report to the doctor any signs of indigestion.
D. If my father is unable to swallow, I will discontinue the feeding and call the clinic.

137. The nurse is assessing the client with a total knee replacement two hours post-operative. Which information requires notification of the doctor?
A. Scant bleeding on the dressing
B. Low-grade temperature
C. Hemoglobin of 7gm/dL
D. Urine output of 120mL during the last hour

138. Which information in the child’s health history is likely related to the diagnosis of plumbism?
A. The child has traveled out of the country in the last six months.
B. The child’s parents are skilled stained glass artists.
C. The child lives in a house built in 1990.
D. The child attends a public daycare facility.

139. Which equipment would assist the client with a total hip replacement with activities of daily living?
A. Raised commode
B. Velcro fasteners
C. Hand grip utensils
D. Large button clothing

140. Which complaint by the client raises the possibility of compartment syndrome following cast application to the leg?
A. Diffuse aching in the leg
B. Tight burning pain in the calf
C. Localized pain along the shin
D. Throbbing sensation in the toes

141. Which roommate would be most suitable for the six-year-old male with a fractured femur in Russell’s traction?
A. Sixteen-year-old male with leukemia
B. Twelve-year-old male with a fractured humerus
C. Ten-year-old male with sarcoma
D. Six-year-old male with osteomyelitis

142. A client with osteoarthritis has a prescription for Celebrex (celecoxib). Which instruction should be included in the discharge teaching?
A. Take the medication with milk
B. Report chest pain to the physician
C. Remain upright 30 minutes after taking the medication
D. Allow six weeks for optimal effects

143. Which action by the nurse indicates understanding of the care of a client with a fiberglass leg cast?
A. The nurse handles the cast with the fingertips.
B. The nurse allows 24 hours for the cast to dry.
C. The nurse dries the cast with a blow dryer.
D. The nurse tells the client to wait 30 minutes before bearing weight.

144. The teenager with a fiberglass cast asks the nurse if it will be okay to allow his friends to autograph his cast. Which response would be best?
A. It will be alright for your friends to autograph the cast.
B. Because the cast is made of plaster, autographing can weaken the cast.
C. If they don’t use chalk to autograph, it is okay.
D. Autographing or writing on the cast in any form will harm the cast.

145. The nurse is assigned to care for the client with a Steinman pin. During pin care, she notes that the LPN uses sterile gloves and cotton tipped applicators to clean the pin. Which action should the nurse take at this time?
A. Assist the LPN with opening sterile packages and peroxide
B. Tell the LPN that clean gloves are allowed
C. Tell the LPN that the registered nurse should perform pin care
D. Ask the LPN to clean the weights and pulleys with peroxide

146. Which nursing action is specific to the care of the client in a body cast?
A. Auscultating bowel sounds
B. Assessing the blood pressure
C. Offering pain medication as needed
D. Assessing for swelling in the upper extremities

147. Which statement is true regarding the care of the patient in skeletal traction?
A. The nurse may remove the weights for bathing.
B. Blocks should be placed beneath the head of the bed.
C. The weights must hang freely to be effective.
D. The nurse should massage reddened areas to prevent skin breakdown.

148. A client with a total knee replacement has a CPM (continuous passive motion) device applied during the post-operative period. Which statement made by the nurse indicates understanding of the care of the client with a CPM device?
A. Use of the CPM device will permit the client to ambulate during the therapy.
B. The CPM device controls should be positioned out of the client’s reach.
C. If the client complains of pain during therapy, I will discontinue use of the device and call the doctor.
D. Use of the CPM device will eliminate the need for physical therapy after the client is discharged.

149. A client with a fractured hip is being taught correct use of the walker. The nurse is aware that the correct use of the walker is achieved if the:
A. Palms of the hands rest lightly on the handles.
B. Elbows are extended 0º.
C. Client steps all the way forward to the front of the walker.
D. Client lifts and carries the walker while ambulating.

150. When assessing a laboring client, the nurse finds a prolapsed cord. The nurse should:
A. Attempt to replace the cord
B. Place the client on her left side
C. Elevate the client’s hips
D. Cover the cord with a dry, sterile gauze

151. The nurse is caring for a 30-year-old male admitted with a stab wound. While in the emergency room, a chest tube is inserted. Which of the following explains the primary rationale for insertion of chest tubes?
A. The tube will allow for equalization of the lung expansion.
B. Chest tubes serve as a method of draining blood and serous fluid and assist in reinflating the lungs.
C. Chest tubes relieve pain associated with a collapsed lung.
D. Chest tubes assist with cardiac function by stabilizing lung expansion.

152. A client who delivered this morning tells the nurse that she plans to breastfeed her baby. The nurse is aware that successful breastfeeding is most dependent on the:
A. Mother’s educational level
B. Infant’s birth weight
C. Size of the mother’s breast
D. Mother’s desire to breastfeed

153. The nurse is monitoring the progress of a client in labor. Which finding should be reported to the physician immediately?
A. The presence of scant bloody discharge
B. Frequent urination
C. The presence of green-tinged amniotic fluid
D. Moderate uterine contractions

154. The nurse is measuring the duration of the client’s contractions. Which statement is true regarding the measurement of the duration of contractions?
A. Duration is measured by timing from the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction.
B. Duration is measured by timing from the end of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction.
C. Duration is measured by timing from the beginning of one contraction to the end of the same contraction.
D. Duration is measured by timing from the peak of one contraction to the end of the same contraction.

155. The physician has ordered an intravenous infusion of Pitocin (oxytocin) for the induction of labor. When caring for the obstetric client receiving intravenous Pitocin (oxytocin), the nurse should monitor for:
A. Maternal hypoglycemia
B. Fetal bradycardia
C. Maternal hyperreflexia
D. Fetal movement

156. A client with diabetes visits the prenatal clinic at 28 weeks gestation. Which statement is true regarding insulin needs during pregnancy?
A. Insulin requirements moderate as the pregnancy progresses.
B. A decreased need for insulin occurs during the second trimester.
C. Elevations in human chorionic gonadotropin decrease the need for insulin.
D. Fetal development depends on adequate insulin regulation.

157. A client in the prenatal clinic is assessed to have a blood pressure of 180/96. The nurse should give priority to:
A. Providing a calm environment
B. Obtaining a diet history
C. Administering an analgesic
D. Assessing fetal heart tones

158. A primigravida, age 42, is six weeks pregnant. Based on the client’s age, her infant is at increased risk for:
A. Down syndrome
B. Respiratory distress syndrome
C. Turner syndrome
D. Pathological jaundice

159. A client with a missed abortion at 29 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital. The client will most likely be treated with:
A. Magnesium sulfate
B. Calcium gluconate
C. Dinoprostone (Prostin E.)
D. Bromocriptine (Parlodel)

160. A client with preeclampsia has been receiving an infusion containing magnesium sulfate for a blood pressure that is 160/80. Deep tendon reflexes are 2 plus, and the urinary output for the past hour is 100mL. The nurse should:
A. Continue the infusion of magnesium sulfate while monitoring the client’s blood pressure.
B. Stop the infusion of magnesium sulfate and contact the physician.
C. Slow the infusion rate and turn the client on her left side.
D. Administer calcium gluconate IV push and continue to monitor the blood pressure.

161. Which statement made by the nurse describes the inheritance pattern of autosomal recessive disorders?
A. An affected child has unaffected parents.
B. An affected child has one affected parent.
C. Affected parents have a one-in-four chance of passing on the defective gene.
D. Affected parents have unaffected children who are carriers.

162. A pregnant client, age 32, asks the nurse why her doctor has recommended a serum alpha fetoprotein. The nurse should explain that the doctor has recommended the test:
A. Because it is a state law
B. To detect cardiovascular defects
C. Because of her age
D. To detect neurological defects

163. A client with hypothyroidism asks the nurse if she will still need to take thyroid medication during the pregnancy. The nurse’s response is based on the knowledge that:
A. There is no need to take thyroid medication because the fetus’s thyroid produces a thyroid-stimulating hormone.
B. Regulation of thyroid medication is more difficult because the thyroid gland increases in size during pregnancy.
C. It is more difficult to maintain thyroid regulation during pregnancy due to a slowing of metabolism.
D. Fetal growth is arrested if thyroid medication is continued during pregnancy.

164. The nurse is responsible for performing a neonatal assessment on a full-term infant. At one minute, the nurse could expect to find:
A. An apical pulse of 100
B. An absence of tonus
C. Cyanosis of the feet and hands
D. Jaundice of the skin and sclera

165. A client with sickle cell anemia is admitted to the labor and delivery unit during the first phase of labor. The nurse should anticipate the client’s need for:
A. Supplemental oxygen
B. Fluid restriction
C. Blood transfusion
D. Delivery by Caesarean section

166. A client with gestational diabetes has an order for ultrasonography. Preparation for an ultrasound includes:
A. Increasing fluid intake
B. Limiting ambulation
C. Administering an enema
D. Withholding food for eight hours

167. An infant who weighs 8 pounds at birth would be expected to weigh how many pounds at six months?
A. 14 pounds
B. 24 pounds
C. 18 pounds
D. 16 pounds

168. A pregnant client with a history of alcohol addiction is scheduled for a nonstress test. The nonstress test:
A. Determines the lung maturity of the fetus
B. Measures the activity of the fetus
C. Shows the effect of contractions on the fetal heart rate
D. Measures the neurological well-being of the fetus

169. A client with ankylosing spondylitis is to begin treatment with Cosentyx (secukinumab). Prior to beginning the medication, the physician will most likely order which of the following?
A. Chest x-ray
B. Pregnancy test
C. Allergy testing
D. TB skin test

170. A gravida 3 para 2 is admitted to the labor unit. Vaginal exam reveals that the client’s cervix is 8cm dilated, with complete effacement. The priority nursing diagnosis at this time is:
A. Alteration in coping related to pain
B. Potential for injury related to precipitate delivery
C. Alteration in elimination related to anesthesia
D. Potential for fluid volume deficit related to NPO status

171. A child receiving immunosuppressive medication has contracted varicella. The physician will most likely order which of the following medications?
A. Dilantin (phenytoin)
B. ASA (aspirin)
C. Zovirax (acyclovir)
D. Motrin (ibuprofen)

172. A client is admitted complaining of chest pain. Which of the following medications is not indicated in the care of the client with chest pain?
A. Nitro-Stat (nitroglycerin)
B. Atropine
C. Inderal (propranolol)
D. Calan (verapamil)

173. Which of the following instructions should be included in the teaching for the client with rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Avoid exercise because it fatigues the joints
B. Take prescribed anti-inflammatory medications with meals
C. Alternate hot and cold packs to affected joints
D. Avoid weight-bearing activity

174. Which medication should be avoided by the client with acute pancreatitis?
A. Demerol (meperidine)
B. Pepcid (famotidine)
C. Zantac (ranitidine)
D. Duramorph (morphine sulfate)

175. The client is admitted for observation because of ingestion of a hallucinogenic drug. Which statement is true regarding hallucinogenic drugs?
A. Hallucinogenic drugs create both stimulant and depressant effects.
B. Hallucinogenic drugs induce a state of altered perception.
C. Hallucinogenic drugs produce severe respiratory depression.
D. Hallucinogenic drugs induce rapid physical dependence.

176. A client has a history of abusing barbiturates. Which of the following is a sign of mild barbiturate intoxication?
A. Rapid speech
B. Nystagmus
C. Anisocoria
D. Polyphagia

177. During the assessment of a laboring client, the nurse notes that the FHT are loudest in the upper-right quadrant. The infant is most likely in which position?
A. Right breech presentation
B. Right occipital anterior presentation
C. Left sacral anterior presentation
D. Left occipital transverse presentation

178. Which of the following is considered an intrinsic factor in the development of asthma?
A. Sinusitis
B. Hormonal influences
C. Food additives
D. Psychological stress

179. A client with mania is unable to finish her dinner. To help her maintain sufficient nourishment, the nurse should:
A. Serve high-calorie foods she can carry with her
B. Encourage her appetite by sending out for her favorite foods
C. Serve her small, attractively arranged portions
D. Allow her in the unit kitchen for extra food whenever she pleases

180. To maintain Bryant’s traction, the nurse must make certain that the child’s:
A. Hips are resting on the bed with the legs suspended at a right angle to the bed.
B. Hips are slightly elevated above the bed and the legs are suspended at a right angle to the bed.
C. Hips are elevated above the level of the body on a pillow and the legs are suspended parallel to the bed.
D. Hips and legs are flat on the bed with the traction positioned at the foot of the bed.

181. Which nursing intervention is appropriate when caring for a client with herpes zoster?
A. Covering the lesions with a sterile dressing
B. Wearing gloves when providing care
C. Administering aspirin for discomfort
D. Administering Zovirax (acyclovir) within 72 hours of the outbreak

182. There is an order for a trough level to be drawn on the client receiving Vancocin (vancomycin). The nurse is aware that the lab should collect the blood:
A. 15 minutes after the infusion
B. Prior to the fourth infusion
C. One hour after the infusion
D. Two hours before the second infusion

183. The client using a diaphragm should be instructed to:
A. Refrain from keeping the diaphragm in longer than four hours
B. Store the diaphragm in a cool place
C. Have the diaphragm resized if she gains five pounds
D. Have the diaphragm resized if she has any surgery

184. The nurse is providing postpartum teaching for a mother planning to breastfeed her infant. Which of the client’s statements indicates the need for additional teaching?
A. I’m wearing a support bra.
B. I’m expressing milk from my breast.
C. I’m drinking four glasses of fluid during a 24-hour period.
D. While I’m in the shower, I’ll allow the water to run over my breasts.

185. Damage to the VII cranial nerve results in:
A. Facial pain
B. Absence of ability to smell
C. Absence of eye movement
D. Tinnitus

186. A client is receiving Pyridium (phenazopyridine hydrochloride) for a urinary tract infection. The client should be taught that the medication may:
A. Cause diarrhea
B. Change the color of her urine
C. Cause mental confusion
D. Cause changes in taste

187. Which of the following should be performed before beginning therapy with Accutane (isotretinoin)?
A. Calcium level
B. Pregnancy test
C. Potassium level
D. Creatinine level

188. A client with HIV is taking Zovirax (acyclovir). Which instruction should the nurse give the client taking acyclovir?
A. Limit your activity while taking the medication.
B. Supplement your diet with high-carbohydrate sources.
C. Use an incentive spirometer to improve respiratory function.
D. Increase your fluid intake to eight glasses of water a day.

189. A female client is admitted for a CAT scan with contrast medium. Which of the following findings would prevent the client from having the ordered test?
A. Pregnancy
B. A titanium hip replacement
C. Allergy to eggs
D. Inability to lie still for 30 minutes

190. The nurse is caring for the client receiving Amphotericin B. Which of the following indicates that the client has experienced toxicity to this drug?
A. Changes in vision
B. Nausea
C. Urinary frequency
D. Changes in skin color

191. The nurse should visit which of the following clients first?
A. The client with diabetes with a blood glucose of 95mg/dL
B. The client with hypertension being maintained on Zestril (lisinopril)
C. The client with chest pain and a history of angina
D. The client with Raynaud’s disease

192. A client with cystic fibrosis is taking pancreatic enzymes. The nurse should administer this medication:
A. Once per day in the morning
B. Three times per day with meals
C. Once per day at bedtime
D. Four times per day

193. Cataracts result in opacity of the crystalline lens. Which of the following best explains the functions of the lens?
A. The lens controls stimulation of the retina.
B. The lens orchestrates eye movement.
C. The lens focuses light rays on the retina.
D. The lens magnifies small objects.

194. A client who has glaucoma is to have miotic eye drops instilled in both eyes. The nurse knows that the purpose of the medication is to:
A. Anesthetize the cornea
B. Dilate the pupils
C. Constrict the pupils
D. Paralyze the muscles of accommodation

195. A client with a corneal abrasion has an order for Garamycin (gentamicin) ophthalmic drops 1 bid and PredForte (prednisolone) ophthalmic drops 1 bid. Which of the following methods should be used when administering the medications?
A. Allow five minutes between the administration of the two medications
B. Administer the two medications at the same time
C. Allow 30 minutes between the administration of the two medications
D. Separate the administration of the medication by one to two hours

196. The client with color blindness will have problems distinguishing which of the following colors?
A. Orange
B. Violet
C. Red
D. Yellow

197. The client with a pacemaker should be taught to:
A. Report ankle edema
B. Check his blood pressure daily
C. Refrain from using a microwave oven
D. Monitor his pulse rate

198. The client with enuresis is being taught regarding bladder retraining. The nurse should advise the client to refrain from drinking after:
A. 1900
B. 1200
C. 1000
D. 0700

199. Which of the following diet instructions should be given to the client with recurring urinary tract infections?
A. Increase intake of red meats
B. Avoid citrus fruits
C. Limit the intake of dairy products
D. Drink a glass of cranberry juice every day

200. The physician has prescribed NPH insulin for a client with diabetes mellitus. Which statement indicates that the client knows when the peak action of the insulin occurs?
A. I will make sure I eat breakfast within two hours of taking my insulin.
B. I will need to carry candy or some form of sugar with me all the time.
C. I will eat a snack around three o’clock each afternoon.
D. I can save my dessert from supper for a bedtime snack.